the two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug nutrient interactions are the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam

1. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are the:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: clinical dietitian and pharmacist. Clinical dietitians and pharmacists work closely together to monitor and manage drug-nutrient interactions. While physicians and nurses play essential roles in patient care, they are not typically the primary professionals involved in monitoring drug-nutrient interactions. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

3. A nurse is discussing denture care with the partner of a client who is unable to perform oral hygiene. Which of the following should be included in the discussion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Wrap gloved fingers with gauze to remove dentures.' This method provides a safe and effective way to remove dentures without causing damage. Choice A is incorrect because flossing dentures is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests wiping dentures and storing them dry, which is not the best practice. Choice D is incorrect because using a washcloth may not effectively clean all denture surfaces.

4. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

5. A nurse is planning care for a toddler who has burns over 50% total body surface area. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering enteral feedings is crucial for ensuring adequate nutrition and supporting healing in toddlers with extensive burns. Burns over 50% total body surface area can lead to increased metabolic demands, making it essential to provide nutrition through enteral feedings to meet the child's needs for healing and recovery. Limiting intake of vitamin C or dietary protein would be detrimental in this scenario as the child requires increased amounts of nutrients to support healing. Administering insulin prior to meals is not indicated in this case as the priority is to provide adequate nutrition to promote healing.

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