Nursing Elites

1. The system used at the division level and forward is comprised of six basic modules. Which module is staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses?

• A. Treatment squad
• B. Area support squad
• C. Medical service squad
• D. Forward surgical team

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Forward Surgical Team (FST). The FST is indeed staffed with two surgeons, two nurse anesthetists, a medical/surgical nurse, two operating room specialists, and two practical nurses. This team is specifically trained and equipped to provide surgical intervention in austere environments where immediate medical care is needed. Choices A, B, and C do not match the personnel composition described in the question, making them incorrect. The Treatment squad typically focuses on patient care and recovery, the Area support squad provides logistical and administrative support, and the Medical service squad deals with broader medical services beyond surgical interventions.

2. One of the reasons hospital patients are at greater risk for drug-nutrient interactions than they used to be is because:

• A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill
• B. Hospital routines interfere with the correct timing of medications
• C. Drugs used today are more toxic and have more side effects
• D. Responsibility for monitoring this is shared by various members of the healthcare team

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hospitalized patients are more acutely ill, often having multiple conditions and treatments, which increases the risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice B is incorrect because hospital routines do not specifically interfere with the timing of medications in relation to drug-nutrient interactions. Choice C is incorrect because the toxicity and side effects of drugs do not directly relate to an increased risk of drug-nutrient interactions. Choice D is incorrect as sharing responsibility for monitoring does not inherently increase the risk of drug-nutrient interactions in hospital patients.

3. In managing cystic fibrosis, which nutrition therapy is crucial for patients with pancreatic insufficiency?

• A. A low-fat diet to prevent steatorrhea
• B. A low-sodium diet to normalize fluid status
• C. A high-fiber diet to normalize bowel function
• D. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy to help digestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is vital for aiding digestion. This therapy helps compensate for the decreased production of digestive enzymes by the pancreas, enabling the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients. Options A, B, and C are not the primary focus of nutrition therapy for cystic fibrosis patients with pancreatic insufficiency.

4. In which situation(s) can personal health information be disclosed?

• A. Compliance with legal proceedings
• B. For research purposes in limited circumstances
• C. To a family member or significant other in an emergency
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Personal health information can be disclosed in various situations. Compliance with legal proceedings allows for disclosure under specific legal requirements. Disclosure for research purposes is permitted in limited circumstances with appropriate approvals. In emergencies, information can be shared with family members or significant others. Therefore, all of the choices are correct as they represent valid scenarios for disclosing personal health information.

5. A 31-year-old client is seeking contraceptive information. Before responding to the client’s questions about contraceptives, the nurse obtains a health history. What factor in the client’s history indicates to the nurse that oral contraceptives are contraindicated?

• A. More than 30 years of age
• B. Had two multiple pregnancies
• C. Smokes 1 pack of cigarettes a day
• D. Has a history of borderline hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Smoking, especially in clients over 30, increases the risk of thromboembolic events, making oral contraceptives contraindicated. Choice A (More than 30 years of age) is not a direct contraindication for oral contraceptives. Choice B (Had two multiple pregnancies) is not a factor that contraindicates the use of oral contraceptives. Choice D (Has a history of borderline hypertension) is not a specific contraindication for oral contraceptives unless it is severe or uncontrolled hypertension.

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