ATI RN
ATI RN Nutrition Online Practice 2019
1. The stages of grieving identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross are:
- A. Numbness, anger, resolution and reorganization
- B. Denial, anger, identification, depression and acceptance
- C. Anger, loneliness, depression and resolution
- D. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
2. What nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for a patient with heart failure?
- A. risk for infection
- B. fluid volume excess
- C. impaired body temperature
- D. ineffective airway clearance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with heart failure is 'fluid volume excess.' In heart failure, the heart's reduced pumping ability leads to fluid retention, causing an excess of fluid in the body. This can result in symptoms such as edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain. 'Risk for infection,' 'impaired body temperature,' and 'ineffective airway clearance' are not the most appropriate nursing diagnoses for a patient with heart failure as they do not directly relate to the pathophysiology and common issues seen in heart failure patients.
3. Mr. Bradley has been advised to limit his dairy product intake. What principle regarding fluid intake should be followed?
- A. Gelatin, soups, fruit ices, and frozen fruit bars contribute to your fluid intake
- B. Drink milk in moderation
- C. Increase fiber intake
- D. Limit protein intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For patients with kidney disease, it's important to manage fluid intake from all sources, including foods like gelatin and soups, which can contribute to fluid overload.
4. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?
- A. confusion and difficulty speaking
- B. headache and blurred vision
- C. chest pain and pressure
- D. claudication and peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.
5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in developing a system of rewards.
- B. Arrange for someone to remain with the client for 30 minutes after meals.
- C. Offer the client a selection of beverages at each meal.
- D. Inform the client that a weight gain of 2.3 kg per week is expected.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in developing a system of rewards is an essential part of the plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. This action can help motivate and engage the client in their treatment plan, promoting a sense of achievement and progress. Choice B, arranging for someone to remain with the client for 30 minutes after meals, may not address the underlying issues related to anorexia nervosa and could potentially disrupt the client's independence. Choice C, offering a selection of beverages at each meal, is not directly related to addressing the client's condition of anorexia nervosa. Choice D, informing the client about an expected weight gain, could increase anxiety and may not be appropriate without considering the client's individual progress and readiness.
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