ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. The school nurse has been alerted to the fact that an 8-year-old boy routinely playacts as a police officer, 'locking up' other children on the playground to the point where the children get scared. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely an indication of:
- A. The need to dominate others
- B. Inventing traumatic events
- C. A need to develop close relationships
- D. A potential symptom of traumatization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The behavior of an 8-year-old boy playacting as a police officer and 'locking up' other children to the point of scaring them is likely a symptom of traumatization. Children may reenact traumatic experiences through play, and acting out aggressive or controlling roles can be a sign of underlying trauma. This behavior should be further assessed and addressed with appropriate support and intervention to help the child process and cope with any potential trauma.
2. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Exposure and response prevention
- C. Interpersonal therapy
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
3. Which response demonstrates accurate information that should be discussed with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system? Select the incorrect one.
- A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
- B. Due to the risk of a manic episode, antidepressant therapy is never used with bipolar disorder.
- C. It's critical to inform your healthcare provider immediately if you are experiencing sleep disturbances.
- D. Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In managing bipolar disorder, it is vital to educate the patient and their support system about triggers like alcohol and caffeine, the significance of good sleep, and the need for family involvement. However, the statement in choice B is incorrect. While antidepressants need to be carefully monitored in bipolar disorder, they can be used in conjunction with mood stabilizers to manage depression in some cases.
4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Fatigue
- C. Excessive worry
- D. Mania
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include restlessness, fatigue, excessive worry, and irritability. Mania is not typically associated with GAD; instead, it is a key feature of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect to find mania in a client with GAD.
5. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?
- A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
- B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
- C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
- D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.
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