ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:
- A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
- B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
- C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
- D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.
2. A client was rushed in the E.R showing a whitish, leathery and painless burned area on his skin. The nurse is correct in classifying this burn as:
- A. First degree burn C. Third degree burn
- B. Second degree burn D. Partial thickness burn
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nursing interventions should be grounded in a deep understanding of the physiological processes involved, ensuring that care provided is both effective and efficient.
3. How much extra protein (above RDA) is safe to consume?
- A. 2x your RDA
- B. any amount
- C. 3x your RDA
- D. 20 grams
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Consuming up to twice the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of protein is generally considered safe for most people, although it may vary depending on individual health conditions.
4. What food would most likely be included in Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet?
- A. peanut butter
- B. oatmeal
- C. fruit preserves
- D. plain yogurt
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, plain yogurt. Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet includes pureed or smooth foods that are easy to swallow. Plain yogurt fits this criteria as it is smooth and can be easily consumed without posing a risk of choking. Choices A, B, and C are not typically included in Level 1 of the diet. Peanut butter, oatmeal, and fruit preserves are not usually suitable for individuals on Level 1 of the National Dysphagia Diet as they may present a choking hazard or are not in a pureed or smooth form.
5. A healthcare provider is on a med-surg unit caring for a client who follows the dietary laws of Orthodox Judaism. Which of the following menu selections should the healthcare provider recommend for this client?
- A. Fried catfish
- B. Broiled shrimp
- C. Pork sausage
- D. Grilled vegetables
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Grilled vegetables. Orthodox Judaism restricts the consumption of certain animals, including catfish, shrimp, and pork, making choices A, B, and C inappropriate for a client following these dietary laws. Grilled vegetables are a safe and suitable option that complies with Orthodox Jewish dietary guidelines.
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