ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:
- A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
- B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
- C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
- D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.
2. Which test is used to monitor the degree of blood glucose control over a long period?
- A. Glucose tolerance test
- B. Glycated hemoglobin level
- C. Self-monitoring of blood glucose
- D. 24-hour urinary glucose excretion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, glycated hemoglobin level. The glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) test measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a long-term picture of glucose control. Choice A, the glucose tolerance test, measures how well your body processes glucose but is not specifically for long-term monitoring. Choice C, self-monitoring of blood glucose, involves daily testing by individuals, providing immediate rather than long-term information. Choice D, 24-hour urinary glucose excretion, measures the amount of glucose excreted in the urine over 24 hours and is not typically used for long-term monitoring of blood glucose control.
3. All of the following are instructions for proper foot care to be given to a client with peripheral vascular disease caused by diabetes. Which one is not?
- A. Trim nails using a nail clipper
- B. Apply cornstarch to the foot
- C. Always check the temperature of the water before bathing
- D. Use canvas shoes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A', which says trim nails using a nail clipper. This is incorrect because patients with peripheral vascular disease, particularly those caused by diabetes, should not trim their nails themselves due to the risk of injury, infection, and poor wound healing. The other options, 'B', 'C', and 'D', are correct advice for diabetic foot care. Applying cornstarch can help keep the feet dry and prevent fungal infections. Checking the water temperature before bathing can prevent burns, as patients with peripheral vascular disease often have decreased sensation in their feet. Wearing canvas shoes can improve foot ventilation and reduce the risk of foot ulcers and infections.
4. How is the equalization of solute concentration of intracellular fluids (ICFs) and extracellular fluids (ECFs accomplished?
- A. Semipermeable membranes.
- B. Hydration.
- C. Osmotic pressure.
- D. Perspiration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure within the body equalizes the solute concentration of ICFs and ECFs by shifting small amounts of water in the direction of higher concentration solute. Semipermeable membranes separate one fluid compartment from another and do not directly equalize solute concentrations. Hydration and perspiration are important elements of fluid balance but do not directly achieve the equalization of solute concentrations between ICFs and ECFs, which is primarily regulated by osmotic pressure.
5. Miss CEE is admitted for treatment of major depression. She appears withdrawn, disheveled, and states 'Nobody wants me'. What does the nurse most likely expect that Miss CEE is to be placed on?
- A. Neuroleptics medication
- B. Special diet
- C. Suicide precaution
- D. Anxiolytics medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Given Miss CEE's state of major depression and her expressed feelings of worthlessness ('Nobody wants me'), the nurse would most likely expect her to be placed on suicide precaution. This means that measures would be taken to ensure her safety and to prevent her from harming herself. While medications like neuroleptics (Choice A) and anxiolytics (Choice D) might be employed as part of her overall treatment, these medicines are primarily used for conditions like psychosis and anxiety respectively, not specifically for depression or suicidal ideation. A special diet (Choice B) may be part of a comprehensive treatment plan, but it is not as immediate or as directly related to her current emotional and psychological state as suicide precaution is.
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