ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:
- A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
- B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
- C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
- D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.
2. Patients maintained using peritoneal dialysis may gain weight because:
- A. their appetite is increased
- B. physical activity is limited
- C. they absorb glucose from the dialysate
- D. they absorb amino acids from the dialysate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Glucose from the peritoneal dialysis solution can be absorbed into the bloodstream, leading to weight gain if not balanced with diet and activity.
3. What is the procedure called when direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake?
- A. Food diary
- B. 24-hour recall
- C. Kilocalorie count
- D. Nutrient surveillance record
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A kilocalorie count is the correct answer as it involves directly observing a client's food intake, which is often used in hospitals to accurately assess nutritional intake and ensure it meets dietary requirements. A food diary (Choice A) is typically self-reported by the client and not directly observed. A 24-hour recall (Choice B) is also usually self-reported and relies on a client's memory of the past 24 hours, which can be unreliable. A nutrient surveillance record (Choice D) is a broader term for tracking nutrient intake in a population and is not specific to the direct observation of an individual's food intake.
4. When administering Tapazole, The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effect?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Seizure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. Which chemical structure is represented by glycerol combined with two fatty acids?
- A. Compound lipids
- B. Monoglycerides
- C. Diglycerides
- D. Structural lipids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diglycerides. A diglyceride is a glycerol molecule combined with two fatty acids. This is a common form of fat during digestion and absorption. Choice A, Compound lipids, is incorrect because these lipids are composed of simple lipids plus additional compounds, which is not the case with a glycerol molecule combined with two fatty acids. Choice B, Monoglycerides, is incorrect because these are glycerol molecules combined with only one fatty acid, not two. Lastly, choice D, Structural lipids, is incorrect because these are major components of cell membranes and do not directly relate to the combination of glycerol and two fatty acids.
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