Nursing Elites

1. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

• A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
• B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
• C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
• D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.

2. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:

• A. Soften and efface the cervix
• B. Numb cervical pain receptors
• C. Prevent cervical lacerations
• D. Stimulate uterine contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. In comparison to infants born to women of normal weight, infants born to obese women are _____.

• A. less likely to have heart defects
• B. more likely to be of very low birthweight
• C. less likely to experience a complicated birth
• D. more likely to have neural tube defects

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infants born to obese women are more likely to have neural tube defects compared to infants born to women of normal weight. This increased risk is attributed to factors such as poor maternal nutrition and increased inflammation during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because infants born to obese women have a higher risk of heart defects. Choice B is incorrect as infants born to obese women are more likely to have higher birthweights. Choice C is incorrect as obese women are more likely to experience complications during birth.

4. What is the initial major sign of acute renal failure?

• A. Oliguria
• B. Hematuria
• C. Proteinuria
• D. Glycosuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is often the initial major sign of acute renal failure. This reduction in urine output indicates that the kidneys are not functioning properly. Hematuria (blood in urine), proteinuria (presence of protein in urine), and glycosuria (presence of glucose in urine) are not typically the initial major signs of acute renal failure. While they may be present in certain conditions, oliguria is the most common and critical indicator of acute renal failure.

5. Risk factors that have been shown to contribute to age-related macular degeneration include _____.

• A. oxidative stress from sunlight
• B. iron-deficiency anemia
• C. decreased intake of phytochemicals
• D. vitamin B6 malabsorption

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: oxidative stress from sunlight. Oxidative stress caused by exposure to sunlight is a significant risk factor for age-related macular degeneration. This condition can result in vision loss among older individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Iron-deficiency anemia, decreased intake of phytochemicals, and vitamin B6 malabsorption are not established risk factors for age-related macular degeneration.

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