Nursing Elites

1. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

• A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
• B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
• C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
• D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.

2. What health instruction will enhance regulation of a colostomy (defecation) of clients?

• A. Irrigate after lunch everyday
• B. Eat fruits and vegetables in all three meals
• C. Eat balanced meals at regular intervals
• D. Restrict exercise to walking only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

3. If there is an accidental injury to the parathyroid gland during a thyroidectomy which of the following might Leda develop postoperatively?

• A. Cardiac arrest C. Respiratory failure
• B. Dyspnea D. Tetany
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab findings of a client who has Clostridium Difficile. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client is experiencing Fluid Volume Deficit?

• A. Hct 53%
• B. Potassium 3.5
• C. Sodium 145
• D. HbA1c 5

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated hematocrit level (Hct 53%) indicates hemoconcentration, a sign of fluid volume deficit. Hct measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood and increases when there is a decrease in plasma volume, as seen in fluid volume deficit. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to fluid volume status. Potassium and sodium levels are more indicative of electrolyte imbalances, while HbA1c reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and is not specific to fluid volume status.

5. What are the best food sources of magnesium?

• A. oils, bananas, and pork
• B. pizza, potatoes, and tomatoes
• C. milk, rice, and apples
• D. legumes, whole grains, and chocolate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: legumes, whole grains, and chocolate. These foods are rich sources of magnesium, an essential mineral that plays a role in over 300 biochemical reactions in the body. Choices A, B, and C do not contain as high levels of magnesium compared to legumes, whole grains, and chocolate.

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