ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Proctored Exam 2023 Test Bank
1. A dental hygienist finds several new carious lesions in a patient with chronic obstructive respiratory disease (COPD). While conducting the medical and dental histories, the dental hygienist is most likely to find an increased use of which of the following?
- A. Protein
- B. Cough drops
- C. Fluoride
- D. Xylitol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cough drops. Patients with COPD often use cough drops to manage their symptoms, which can lead to an increase in carious lesions due to their sugar content. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as protein, fluoride, and xylitol are not typically associated with an increased risk of carious lesions in patients with COPD.
2. Each statement is true of calcium within saliva, except one. Which is the exception?
- A. Saliva is supersaturated with calcium.
- B. Saliva is a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface.
- C. Calcium and phosphate in saliva provide a buffering action.
- D. Calcium within saliva increases dental caries.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calcium within saliva does not increase dental caries; in fact, the buffering action provided by calcium and phosphate in saliva inhibits caries formation by preventing the dissolution of enamel by plaque biofilm. Choice A is correct as saliva is indeed supersaturated with calcium. Choice B is correct as saliva serves as a source of calcium to mineralize an immature or demineralized enamel surface. Choice C is correct as calcium and phosphate in saliva do provide a buffering action to protect teeth from acids.
3. A client is planning eating strategies with a nurse who has nausea from equilibrium imbalance. Which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage the client to eat, even if nauseated.
- B. Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals.
- C. Limit fluid intake between meals.
- D. Serve hot foods at mealtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide low-fat carbohydrates with meals. Low-fat carbohydrates are easier to digest and can help manage nausea without overloading the digestive system. Encouraging the client to eat even if nauseated (Choice A) may worsen their symptoms. Limiting fluid intake between meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which can exacerbate nausea. Serving hot foods at mealtime (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying issue of equilibrium imbalance causing nausea.
4. A client is on a 2,000-calorie American Diabetes Association (ADA) diet and substitutes whole milk with skim milk. Which of the following items can the client add to the oatmeal on his breakfast tray?
- A. One 1/8 teaspoon of salt
- B. One ounce of raisins
- C. One tablespoon of low-fat margarine
- D. One teaspoon of brown sugar
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is one ounce of raisins. Raisins are a healthy option to add to oatmeal as they provide natural sweetness without added sugars. They are a good source of fiber and essential nutrients. Option A, one 1/8 teaspoon of salt, is not necessary for flavoring oatmeal. Option C, one tablespoon of low-fat margarine, may add unnecessary fat to the meal. Option D, one teaspoon of brown sugar, adds extra sugar, which should be limited in a diabetes-friendly diet.
5. Each nonnutritive sweetener can be recommended to patients with phenylketonuria, except one. Which one is the exception?
- A. Cyclamate
- B. Acesulfame-K
- C. Saccharin
- D. Aspartame
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Aspartame. Aspartame contains phenylalanine, which is contraindicated for individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disorder that impairs phenylalanine metabolism. Therefore, patients with PKU should avoid aspartame. Choices A, B, and C (Cyclamate, Acesulfame-K, Saccharin) are considered safe for individuals with PKU as they do not contain phenylalanine and can be recommended as alternatives to sugar for these patients.
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