ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:
- A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
- B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
- C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.
2. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:
- A. 0.6 mg
- B. 10 mg
- C. 60 mg
- D. 600 mg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.
3. When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?
- A. Early in the morning
- B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
- C. After aerosol therapy
- D. After chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a sputum specimen early in the morning is the most appropriate time because secretions have accumulated overnight. This timing provides the best sample with the least contamination, leading to more accurate culture results and aiding in diagnosing respiratory infections effectively.
4. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:
- A. A semiconscious or overfatigued patient
- B. A disoriented or confused patient
- C. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home
- D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with impaired awareness may exhibit symptoms such as being semiconscious, overfatigued, disoriented, confused, or demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home does not necessarily indicate impaired awareness, as this could be due to physical limitations or lack of support, rather than a cognitive deficit.
5. A client is receiving discharge instructions from a healthcare provider after being prescribed albuterol for COPD. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. Albuterol can increase my blood sugar levels.
- B. Albuterol can decrease my immune response.
- C. I can experience an increase in my heart rate while taking albuterol.
- D. I may develop mouth sores while taking albuterol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat conditions like COPD. One of its common side effects is an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) due to its action on beta-2 receptors in the body. This statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating comprehension of the discharge teaching provided by the healthcare provider.
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