Nursing Elites

1. The only IV fluid compatible with blood products is:

• A. D5LR C. NSS
• B. D5NSS D. Plain LR
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

2. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is associated with which vitamin deficiency?

• A. Thiamine (B1)
• B. Riboflavin (B2)
• C. Niacin (B3)
• D. Pyridoxine (B6)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is indeed associated with thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency. This syndrome is commonly seen in individuals with chronic alcoholism due to poor diet and impaired thiamine absorption. Thiamine is essential for normal brain function and energy metabolism. Riboflavin (B2) deficiency can lead to symptoms like sore throat and swollen mucous membranes, not Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Niacin (B3) deficiency causes pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, and death, but not Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome. Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency can result in dermatitis, glossitis, and peripheral neuropathy, but it is not associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

3. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is about to progress from a clear liquid diet to full liquids. Which of the following items should the nurse tell the client he may now request to have on his meal tray?

• A. Cranberry juice
• B. Flavored gelatin
• C. Skim milk
• D. Chicken broth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cranberry juice is an appropriate choice for a client transitioning from a clear liquid diet to full liquids post abdominal surgery. It provides hydration and some essential nutrients. Flavored gelatin is usually allowed on a clear liquid diet and may not be suitable for a full liquids phase. Skim milk and chicken broth are typically introduced in a later stage of the diet progression, closer to a soft diet, due to their higher protein and fat content.

4. Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?

• A. Avoidance of universally accepted abbreviations
• B. Usage of incorrect grammar
• C. Poor handwriting
• D. Advanced age of the client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Advanced age of the client.' Age can be a significant obstacle in communication due to factors such as hearing loss, cognitive decline, or memory issues, which all can hamper effective communication. Choices A, B, and C, while they may present challenges in communication, are not directly related to age and its influence on communication, making them incorrect. The issues presented by not using universally accepted abbreviations, incorrect grammar, and poor handwriting can be resolved through clarification, education, or the use of alternative communication methods, unlike the difficulties that can arise from advanced age.

5. What is the primary function of a written nursing care plan?

• A. Evaluates whether nursing care goals have been achieved
• B. Ensures the provision of quality nursing care
• C. Assists in selecting the appropriate nursing interventions
• D. Facilitates the creation of a nursing diagnosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A written nursing care plan fundamentally serves to facilitate the development of a nursing diagnosis. This procedure involves analyzing patient data and identifying health problems that nurses can address independently. This analysis then aids in determining the most appropriate nursing interventions for the identified health issues. Although evaluating the achievement of nursing care goals is an important aspect, it is not the primary function of a nursing care plan. Similarly, while delivering quality nursing care is crucial, it is a broader concept that includes many other facets beyond just the initial nursing diagnosis and interventions.

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