ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. What effect does the use of a hot compress have, as explained to Ronnie who has been prescribed pain medication?
- A. It produces an anesthetic effect
- B. It increases nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing
- C. It increases oxygenation to the injured tissues for better healing
- D. It induces vasoconstriction to prevent infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It produces an anesthetic effect.' Hot compresses can help alleviate pain by producing an anesthetic effect, which numbs the area. Choice B is incorrect because a hot compress does not directly increase nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing. Choice C is also incorrect because a hot compress primarily aids in pain relief rather than increasing oxygenation to the tissues for enhanced healing. Choice D is incorrect because hot compresses typically lead to vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, which aids in promoting blood flow rather than preventing infection. Safe and effective patient care relies on actions based on established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
2. What are the manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?
- A. Dehydration
- B. Uremia
- C. Infection
- D. Low blood lipids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infection is a common manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. This is due to the loss of immunoglobulins in the urine, which weakens the body's immune defenses. Dehydration (Choice A) and uremia (Choice B) can be symptoms of kidney dysfunction but are not specific manifestations of nephrotic syndrome. Low blood lipids (Choice D) is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome typically results in high, not low, blood lipid levels due to the body's attempt to replace lost proteins.
3. The following mechanisms can be utilized as part of the quality assurance program of your hospital EXCEPT:
- A. Patient satisfaction surveys
- B. Peer review to assess care provided
- C. Review of clinical records of care of client
- D. Use of Nursing Interventions Classification
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
4. A client is being taught how to follow a low-purine diet for gout management. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
- A. "I will need to limit the number of fruit servings each day."?
- B. "I should avoid eating liver and other organ meats."?
- C. "I can drink only white wine."?
- D. "I should choose red meat instead of poultry."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Organ meats like liver are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choosing to avoid such foods is essential in following a low-purine diet. Option A is incorrect because fruits are generally low in purines and are not usually restricted in a low-purine diet. Option C is incorrect as white wine, just like other types of alcohol, should be consumed in moderation or avoided due to its purine content. Option D is incorrect because red meat, including beef and lamb, is high in purines and should be limited in a low-purine diet.
5. Each nonnutritive sweetener can be recommended to patients with phenylketonuria, except one. Which one is the exception?
- A. Cyclamate
- B. Acesulfame-K
- C. Saccharin
- D. Aspartame
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Aspartame. Aspartame contains phenylalanine, which is contraindicated for individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU), a genetic disorder that impairs phenylalanine metabolism. Therefore, patients with PKU should avoid aspartame. Choices A, B, and C (Cyclamate, Acesulfame-K, Saccharin) are considered safe for individuals with PKU as they do not contain phenylalanine and can be recommended as alternatives to sugar for these patients.
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