after receiving prescription for pain medication ronnie is instructed to continue applying 30 minute cold at home and start 30 minute hot compress the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019

1. What effect does the use of a hot compress have, as explained to Ronnie who has been prescribed pain medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It produces an anesthetic effect.' Hot compresses can help alleviate pain by producing an anesthetic effect, which numbs the area. Choice B is incorrect because a hot compress does not directly increase nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing. Choice C is also incorrect because a hot compress primarily aids in pain relief rather than increasing oxygenation to the tissues for enhanced healing. Choice D is incorrect because hot compresses typically lead to vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, which aids in promoting blood flow rather than preventing infection. Safe and effective patient care relies on actions based on established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

2. Each of the following is a form of vitamin K, except one. Which is the exception?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tocopherol, Choice B, is not a form of vitamin K; it is another name for vitamin E. Phylloquinone (Choice A), menaquinone (Choice C), and menadione (Choice D) are all forms of vitamin K. Phylloquinone is vitamin K1 found in green plants, menaquinone is vitamin K2 produced in the large intestine and found in animal tissues, and menadione is a synthetic form of vitamin K. Therefore, Choice B is the correct answer because it does not belong to the vitamin K group, unlike the other options.

3. If there is an accidental injury to the parathyroid gland during a thyroidectomy which of the following might Leda develop postoperatively?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

5. Dental hygienists should not encourage patients with eating disorders such as bulimia to brush immediately after vomiting because self-induced vomiting causes erosion of tooth enamel and dentin hypersensitivity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The corrected question emphasizes that patients with eating disorders like bulimia should not brush immediately after vomiting as it can worsen enamel erosion due to the acidic content in the mouth. The correct answer is D because patients should rinse with water or a fluoride mouthwash instead of brushing to protect their teeth. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging patients to brush after vomiting is not recommended. Choice B is incorrect as the reason provided is valid but not suitable for the action of encouraging brushing. Choice C is incorrect as the reason for not brushing after vomiting is to prevent enamel erosion.

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