Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary function of a written nursing care plan?

• A. Evaluates whether nursing care goals have been achieved
• B. Ensures the provision of quality nursing care
• C. Assists in selecting the appropriate nursing interventions
• D. Facilitates the creation of a nursing diagnosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A written nursing care plan fundamentally serves to facilitate the development of a nursing diagnosis. This procedure involves analyzing patient data and identifying health problems that nurses can address independently. This analysis then aids in determining the most appropriate nursing interventions for the identified health issues. Although evaluating the achievement of nursing care goals is an important aspect, it is not the primary function of a nursing care plan. Similarly, while delivering quality nursing care is crucial, it is a broader concept that includes many other facets beyond just the initial nursing diagnosis and interventions.

2. In teaching the sister of a diabetic client about the proper use of a glucometer in determining the blood sugar level of the client, The nurse is focusing in which domain of learning according to bloom?

• A. Cognitive
• B. Affective
• C. Psychomotor
• D. Affiliative

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

3. A patient is on a low-sodium diet. Which food item should the patient avoid?

• A. Fresh fruit
• B. Canned soup
• C. Whole grain bread
• D. Grilled chicken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Canned soup. Canned soup is commonly high in sodium content, which is not suitable for a patient on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruit, whole grain bread, and grilled chicken typically have lower sodium levels and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Therefore, the patient should avoid canned soup to adhere to the requirements of a low-sodium diet.

4. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:

• A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
• B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
• C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
• D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is lactose intolerant. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse assess?

• A. Fever
• B. Blood in stools
• C. Cramping
• D. Steatorrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cramping. Cramping is a common clinical manifestation of lactose intolerance due to the inability to digest lactose properly. Fever (choice A) is not typically associated with lactose intolerance. Blood in stools (choice B) is more indicative of other gastrointestinal issues like inflammatory bowel disease. Steatorrhea (choice D) is the presence of excess fat in the stool and is not a typical symptom of lactose intolerance.

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