Nursing Elites

1. The nurse manager can use several strategies to improve communication when giving directions. Asking the subordinate to repeat the instructions would be which of the following strategies?

• A. Verifying through feedback
• B. Follow-up communication
• C. Getting positive attention
• D. Knowing the context of the instruction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asking the subordinate to repeat the instructions is a strategy known as verifying through feedback. This approach ensures that the receiver has understood the request correctly. Choice B, 'Follow-up communication,' refers to checking in after the initial communication, not necessarily asking for repetition. Choice C, 'Getting positive attention,' is unrelated to confirming understanding. Choice D, 'Knowing the context of the instruction,' deals with understanding the background or reasons behind the instructions, not confirming comprehension.

2. Attending a continuing education class on advanced technology in health care is interpreted as which of the following by the nurse manager?

• A. Only important for nurse managers
• B. Not important
• C. A waste of time
• D. Essential to nursing care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Essential to nursing care.' Advancements in technology play a crucial role in modern healthcare delivery. By attending a class on advanced technology, the staff nurse can enhance their skills and knowledge, ultimately benefiting nursing care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because advanced technology is not exclusive to nurse managers, is important for improving patient care, and is not a waste of time as it helps nurses stay updated with the latest advancements.

3. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention activity?

• A. Administering immunizations
• B. Physical therapy for stroke patients
• C. Routine health screenings
• D. Health education campaigns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, physical therapy for stroke patients. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a disease or condition. Administering immunizations (choice A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Routine health screenings (choice C) are part of secondary prevention to detect diseases early. Health education campaigns (choice D) typically fall under primary prevention by educating and promoting healthy behaviors to prevent diseases.

4. A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

• A. Wear an N95 respirator when giving direct care to the client.
• B. Place the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow.
• C. Ensure the client's room has at least six air exchanges per hour.
• D. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside their room if there is construction in the area.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a protective environment for a client with an allogeneic stem cell transplant, the nurse needs to wear an N95 respirator when providing direct care to the client. This precaution is essential to protect the client, whose immune system is compromised after the transplant, from exposure to potential pathogens. Placing the client in a private room with negative-pressure airflow (choice B) is more appropriate for clients with airborne infections. Ensuring the client's room has sufficient air exchanges (choice C) is important for maintaining air quality but is not the primary precaution for protecting an immunocompromised client. Making the client wear a mask when outside the room due to construction (choice D) focuses on external factors and does not directly address the risk of infection during direct care.

5. Nurse Managers work with staff to educate them about ways to diffuse potentially violent situations. Which of the following diagnoses can staff expect to be more frequently associated with violence?

• A. Alcohol or drug withdrawal
• B. Anxiety
• C. Depression
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alcohol or drug withdrawal is more frequently associated with violence as these conditions alter a person's inhibitions. Gilmore (2006) highlights that working with the public involves inherent risks and stressors. Individuals with head trauma, mental illnesses, and those withdrawing from substances are more likely to respond with violence. Anxiety, depression, and confusion do not typically lead to increased violent behavior compared to conditions involving substance withdrawal.

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