Nursing Elites

1. The staff on a medical-surgical unit is in conflict with the occupational therapy department. What type of communication will be used to discuss the problems?

• A. Downward communication
• B. Lateral communication
• C. Distorted communication
• D. Upward communication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lateral communication. Lateral communication occurs between individuals or departments of the same hierarchical level, making it suitable for addressing conflicts between the staff on a medical-surgical unit and the occupational therapy department. Upward communication involves communication from staff to management or from lower management to middle or upper management. Downward communication is typically directive communication from an authority figure or manager to staff. Distorted communication is not a recognized type of communication and does not apply to this scenario.

2. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Protective environment
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Contact precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. Contact precautions are used when there is a risk of transmission of infections through direct or indirect contact. In this scenario, the client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, indicating a potential for infection transmission through contact. Droplet precautions (choice A) are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment (choice B) is used for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions (choice C) are used for infections transmitted through small droplets that remain in the air, like tuberculosis. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should initiate contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection.

3. What is the primary role of a nurse in palliative care?

• A. To provide emotional support to patients and families
• B. To coordinate patient care and provide pain management
• C. To administer medications and treatments
• D. To conduct research on end-of-life care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In palliative care, a nurse's primary role is to coordinate patient care and provide pain management. While emotional support (Choice A) is a crucial aspect of palliative care, it is not the primary role of a nurse in this setting. Administering medications and treatments (Choice C) is part of the nurse's responsibilities but not the primary role. Conducting research (Choice D) is important for advancing palliative care but is not the primary role of a nurse providing direct patient care in this context.

4. As a new nurse at a healthcare organization offering a nurse residency program, what would benefit you the most?

• A. Avoiding challenging patient assignments to minimize the risk of errors.
• B. Relying on your clinical preceptor, similar to your relationship with your nurse faculty.
• C. Establishing professional goals based on your clinical knowledge.
• D. Engaging in evidence-based practice projects immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As a new nurse joining a nurse residency program, the most beneficial action would be to establish professional goals based on your clinical knowledge. Setting clear goals allows you to focus on your learning needs, competency development, and guidance from your clinical preceptor. This proactive approach helps you maximize your learning opportunities, shape your professional growth, and enhance your skills as a novice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding challenging patient assignments may hinder your learning and skill development. Choice B is incorrect as while the clinical preceptor is essential, solely relying on them without personal professional goals may limit your growth. Choice D is incorrect because engaging in evidence-based practice projects immediately may be overwhelming for a new nurse without first establishing foundational goals.

5. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
• B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
• C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
• D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

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