the nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers what is the most important side effect to monitor
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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers

1. The nurse is teaching a client about the side effects of beta blockers. What is the most important side effect to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important side effect to monitor when a client is on beta blockers is hypotension. Beta blockers can cause a significant drop in blood pressure, especially at the initiation of therapy. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, syncope, or falls. While bradycardia can also occur with beta blockers, hypotension takes precedence due to its immediate impact on perfusion. Hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia is actually a condition that beta blockers aim to treat, so it is not a side effect to monitor.

2. What is the procedure to remove a sample of tissue from the lung for examination under a microscope?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lung biopsy. A lung biopsy involves removing a small sample of lung tissue for examination under a microscope to diagnose lung conditions. Choice B, bronchoscopy, is a procedure where a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera is inserted into the airways to view the lungs. This procedure is more for diagnostic purposes and not specifically for tissue removal. Choice C, thoracentesis, is a procedure to remove fluid from the pleural space around the lungs for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, not for tissue biopsy. Choice D, lobectomy, is a surgical procedure to remove a lobe of the lung, usually done to treat conditions like lung cancer or severe infections, but it does not involve removing tissue for microscopic examination.

3. What is the average cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute. Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute, typically ranging between 4 to 8 liters. Choices A, C, and D provide ranges that are either too narrow or outside the standard average values for cardiac output, making them incorrect.

4. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L is considered low and can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent adverse effects. Administering the digoxin as ordered (Choice B) would put the client at a higher risk for toxicity. Increasing the dose of digoxin (Choice C) is not appropriate when the client's potassium level is low. Administering potassium supplements (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

5. The client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 4.5 is elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to administer vitamin K. Vitamin K helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, thus lowering the INR and reducing the risk of bleeding. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is not sufficient to address the immediate high INR level. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the risk of bleeding. While monitoring the client's INR closely (choice D) is important, immediate action is required to address the critically high INR level, making the administration of vitamin K the priority intervention.

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