ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. The nurse is monitoring a client on dobutamine. What adverse effect should the nurse watch for?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a medication that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to increased heart rate. Therefore, tachycardia is a common adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dobutamine typically does not cause bradycardia, hypertension, or respiratory distress as its primary adverse effects.
2. Which condition is characterized by the right ventricle of the heart failing due to increased pressure in the lungs, often caused by chronic lung disease?
- A. Cor pulmonale
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Aortic stenosis
- D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Cor pulmonale, a condition where the right ventricle of the heart fails due to increased pressure in the lungs, commonly caused by chronic lung diseases like COPD. Pulmonary embolism (choice B) is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by a blood clot. Aortic stenosis (choice C) is a narrowing of the aortic valve opening that restricts blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (choice D) is a genetic condition where the heart muscle becomes abnormally thick, making it harder for the heart to pump blood.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer a beta blocker to a client with hypertension. What is the priority assessment?
- A. Check the client's heart rate.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Check the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Check the client's temperature.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's blood pressure. Before administering a beta blocker to a client with hypertension, assessing the blood pressure is crucial because beta blockers can cause hypotension, potentially leading to adverse effects. Checking the heart rate may also be important but is secondary to monitoring the blood pressure in this scenario. Respiratory rate and temperature assessments are not directly related to assessing the client's response to a beta blocker in hypertension management, making choices C and D less relevant.
4. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement.
- B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
- D. Administer Digibind.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.
5. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Headache
- B. Flushing
- C. Dizziness
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.
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