Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is irrigating a client's colostomy when she complains of abdominal cramping after receiving about 100 mL of the irrigating solution. What should the nurse's first response be in this situation?

• A. Stop the flow of solution temporarily.
• B. Reposition the client on to her right side.
• C. Remove the irrigation tube.
• D. Massage the abdomen gently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The abdominal cramping that can occur during colostomy irrigation results from stimulation of the colon by the irrigating solution. The nurse's first response should be to temporarily stop the flow of solution to allow the cramping to subside. Repositioning the client to the right side will not alleviate the cramping. Removing the tube will not decrease the cramping and will necessitate reinsertion of the tube when the irrigation is resumed. Massaging the abdomen gently may be soothing to some clients, but it is not the nurse's first priority action.

2. A nurse is reviewing the orders of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Select the interventions that the nurse would expect to be prescribed for the client.

• A. Small, frequent high-calorie feedings.
• B. Meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed for pain.
• C. Place the client in a side-lying position with the head elevated 45-degrees.
• D. Administer antacids and anticholinergics to suppress gastrointestinal secretions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to prescribe pain medications such as meperidine to manage the abdominal pain, which is a prominent symptom of the condition. The other options are incorrect because: A) Clients with acute pancreatitis are normally placed on NPO (nothing by mouth) status to rest the pancreas, so small, frequent high-calorie feedings are not indicated. C) Placing the client in a side-lying position with the head elevated 45-degrees helps decrease tension on the abdomen and may ease pain, but it is not a standard intervention for acute pancreatitis. D) Administering antacids and anticholinergics to suppress gastrointestinal secretions is not a routine intervention for acute pancreatitis.

3. A client is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. Which of the following measures would most likely be included in the plan for the client's preoperative preparation?

• A. Keep the client NPO for 2 days before surgery.
• B. Administer kanamycin (Kantrex) the night before surgery.
• C. Inform the client that chest tubes will be in place after surgery.
• D. Advise the client to limit activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antibiotics are administered preoperatively to reduce the bacterial count in the colon. The client will be placed on a low residue diet to help cleanse the bowel before surgery but typically is not placed on NPO status until 8 to 12 hours before surgery. Laxatives and enemas may also be administered. Chest tubes would not be expected postoperatively. There is no need to limit the client's activity before surgery.

4. The nurse has provided home care instructions to a client who had a subtotal gastrectomy. The nurse instructs the client regarding the signs and symptoms associated with dumping syndrome. Which of the following signs and symptoms, if identified by the client, indicates an understanding of this potential complication following gastrointestinal surgery?

• A. Hiccups and diarrhea
• B. Fatigue and abdominal pain
• C. Constipation and fever
• D. Diaphoresis and diarrhea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diaphoresis and diarrhea. Dumping syndrome occurs after gastric surgery when food moves quickly from the stomach to the intestine, causing fluid shifts and leading to symptoms like weakness, dizziness, diaphoresis, flushing, hypotension, abdominal pain, distension, hyperactive bowel sounds, and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect the typical signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome.

5. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with acute gastritis. Which medication if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin (Indocin) is a Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus, stomach, duodenum, or small intestine. Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Digoxin is an antidysrhythmic. Propranolol (Inderal) is a B- adrenergic blocker. Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders.

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