ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. The client is discussing sources of carbohydrates with a nurse recently diagnosed with diabetes. Which food(s) identified by the client indicate understanding? (SATA)
- A. Starch
- B. Fiber
- C. Sugar
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because starch, fiber, and sugar are all sources of carbohydrates. Starchy foods like bread, rice, and potatoes contain starch; fruits, vegetables, and whole grains provide fiber; and sugars are found in sweet foods like fruits, honey, and desserts. Fatty acids and amino acids are not sources of carbohydrates, so choices A, B, and C are correct while choices A and B are incorrect.
2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has constipation about a high-fiber diet. Which of the following foods should be included as sources of fiber? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Whole wheat bread
- B. Kidney beans
- C. Refined cereals
- D. Blackberries
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Refined cereals are not a good source of fiber as they have been processed and stripped off most of their fiber content. Whole wheat bread, kidney beans, and blackberries are excellent sources of fiber. Whole wheat bread is made from whole grains, which are high in fiber. Kidney beans are rich in fiber and can help alleviate constipation. Blackberries are a good source of fiber and can aid in promoting bowel regularity.
3. Maternal malnutrition at a critical period of development may have lifelong effects on an individual's pattern of genetic expression and on the tendency to develop obesity, which is a concept known as _____.
- A. genetic determination
- B. metabolic tolerance
- C. chromosomal influence
- D. fetal programming
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fetal programming refers to the concept that maternal nutrition during critical periods of development can have long-term effects on an individual's health and risk of diseases like obesity.
4. The following mechanisms can be utilized as part of the quality assurance program of your hospital EXCEPT:
- A. Patient satisfaction surveys
- B. Peer review to assess care provided
- C. Review of clinical records of care of client
- D. Use of Nursing Interventions Classification
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
5. During blood administration, what is essential for the nurse to do in order to carefully monitor for adverse reactions?
- A. Stay with the client for the first 15 minutes of blood administration
- B. Stay with the client for the entire period of blood administration
- C. Run the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes
- D. Inform the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the context of blood administration, it's crucial for the nurse to stay with the client for the first 15 minutes. This is because most adverse reactions are likely to occur within this initial period. Monitoring the client closely during this time allows for immediate detection and response to any potential reactions. Choice B, staying with the client for the entire period of blood administration, is not typically feasible or necessary, although regular checks should be conducted. Running the infusion at a faster rate during the first 15 minutes (Choice C) is incorrect as this can actually increase the risk of adverse reactions. Informing the client to notify the staff immediately for any adverse reaction (Choice D) is an important practice, but it is not the most direct way for the nurse to monitor for adverse reactions.
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