ATI RN
Nursing Care of Children ATI
1. The nurse is discussing sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with a 17-year-old student. Which cognitive development theory should the teaching plan be based on?
- A. Sensorimotor reactions
- B. Limited cause and effect understanding
- C. Abstract thinking
- D. Concrete thinking
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Abstract thinking.' According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, adolescents, typically around the age of 12 and older, enter the formal operational stage where they can think abstractly and reason about hypothetical situations. When discussing complex topics like STIs with a 17-year-old student, it is essential to base the teaching plan on abstract thinking. Choice A, 'Sensorimotor reactions,' is incorrect as it pertains to the earliest stage in Piaget's theory (birth to 2 years old) focusing on sensory experiences and physical interactions. Choice B, 'Limited cause and effect understanding,' does not align with the cognitive abilities of a 17-year-old who is capable of more advanced thinking. Choice D, 'Concrete thinking,' is also incorrect as it refers to the stage before formal operations, where individuals think more concretely and struggle with abstract concepts.
2. A new parent, when asked by a nurse, explains that the 4-month-old infant has been nursing regularly every 3 to 4 hours and seems satisfied. However, the parent recently introduced solid food in the form of unbuttered popcorn to the infant as a supplement. What should be the primary nursing concern in this situation?
- A. Imbalanced nutrition, more than body requirements, related to introduction of a high-calorie food
- B. Risk for aspiration related to feeding the infant an inappropriate food
- C. Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, related to introduction of a low-nutritive food
- D. Readiness for enhanced nutrition, related to the age of the infant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary nursing concern in this situation is the risk for aspiration. Popcorn is a choking hazard for infants, as their airway is not fully developed to handle solid foods like popcorn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the main focus should be on the immediate risk of aspiration due to the inappropriate solid food given to the infant, rather than on nutritional imbalances or readiness for enhanced nutrition.
3. Which pediatric disorder is associated with a 'boot-shaped' heart on a chest x-ray?
- A. Tetralogy of Fallot
- B. Transposition of the great arteries
- C. Coarctation of the aorta
- D. Ventricular septal defect
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is often associated with a 'boot-shaped' heart appearance on a chest x-ray due to the characteristic heart anatomy in this condition. This appearance is caused by the combination of pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice B, Transposition of the great arteries, is incorrect because it presents with a 'egg-on-a-string' appearance on x-ray due to the abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary artery. Choice C, Coarctation of the aorta, typically presents with rib notching on x-ray. Choice D, Ventricular septal defect, does not produce the 'boot-shaped' heart appearance seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
4. An intravenous line is needed in a school-age child. What medication is an appropriate analgesic for use with this patient?
- A. TAC (tetracaine, epinephrine [Adrenalin], cocaine) 15 minutes before the procedure.
- B. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch at the site of venipuncture.
- C. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) immediately before the procedure.
- D. LMX (4% liposomal lidocaine cream) 30 minutes before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: LMX is an effective analgesic agent when applied to the skin 30 minutes before a procedure. It eliminates or reduces the pain from most procedures involving skin puncture. TAC provides skin anesthesia about 15 minutes after application to nonintact skin, making it more suitable for wound suturing. Transdermal fentanyl patches are designed for continuous pain control, not rapid pain control needed for a procedure like venipuncture. EMLA, for maximum effectiveness, must be applied approximately 60 minutes before the procedure, making it less suitable for immediate pain relief required for intravenous line placement.
5. A sixteen-year-old boy is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. What information should the nurse know regarding the treatment plan?
- A. Amputation of the affected extremity is rarely necessary.
- B. Intensive radiation is the primary treatment modality.
- C. Treatment usually consists of surgery and chemotherapy.
- D. Bone marrow transplantation is the preferred option for long-term survival.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Osteosarcoma is typically treated with a combination of surgery and chemotherapy. This approach aims to remove the tumor and reduce the risk of metastasis. Amputation of the affected extremity may be necessary in some cases to ensure complete removal of the tumor. Intensive radiation is not the primary treatment for osteosarcoma, and bone marrow transplantation is not the standard treatment for this type of cancer.
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