Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for an infant who was born 24 hr ago to a mother who received no prenatal care. The infant is a poor feeder but sucks avidly on his hands. Clinical manifestations also include hyperactive reflexes, tremors, sneezing, and a high-pitched shrill cry. What does the nurse consider as a possible diagnosis for this infant?

• A. Seizure disorder
• B. Narcotic withdrawal
• C. Placental insufficiency
• D. Meconium aspiration syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the infant's symptoms are consistent with narcotic withdrawal. Infants exposed to drugs in utero may display withdrawal symptoms starting around 12 to 24 hours post-birth. The presentation often includes hyperactive reflexes, tremors, sneezing, high-pitched shrill cry, poor feeding, and sucking avidly on hands. Signs such as loose stools, tachycardia, fever, projectile vomiting, sneezing, and generalized sweating are common. These symptoms are not indicative of a seizure disorder. Placental insufficiency typically leads to a small-for-gestational-age child, which is not mentioned in the scenario. Meconium aspiration syndrome primarily presents with respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in this case.

2. The Denver II is a test used to assess children. What does it evaluate?

• A. Behavior problems
• B. Developmental status
• C. Body mass index
• D. Infection likelihood

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Denver II Developmental Screening Test is used to assess a child's development in four areas: personal-social, fine motor-adaptive, language, and gross motor skills. It helps identify children who may need further evaluation. Choice A, behavior problems, is incorrect as the Denver II primarily focuses on developmental milestones rather than behavior. Choice C, body mass index, is unrelated to the assessment of child development. Choice D, infection likelihood, is also not evaluated by the Denver II test.

3. What is the most common complication following surgical correction of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula in infants?

• A. Gastroesophageal reflux
• B. Respiratory distress
• C. Stricture formation
• D. Aspiration pneumonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common complication following surgical correction of esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula in infants is stricture formation. This complication occurs due to the healing process after surgery, leading to the narrowing of the esophagus. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) can be a concern but is not the most common complication. Respiratory distress (Choice B) may happen but is not the primary complication. Aspiration pneumonia (Choice D) is a risk but is typically not as common as stricture formation in these cases.

4. Which best describes signs and symptoms as part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Description of potential risk factors
• B. Identification of actual health problems
• C. Human response to state of illness or health
• D. Cues and clusters derived from patient assessment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs and symptoms are cues and clusters derived from patient assessments that are used to form a nursing diagnosis, guiding the development of a care plan.

5. Which immunization is typically administered at birth?

• A. Hepatitis B
• B. DTaP
• C. MMR
• D. Varicella

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is usually given at birth to protect against hepatitis B, a virus that can lead to chronic liver disease and liver cancer. This vaccination is crucial for newborns, especially those born to mothers who are carriers of hepatitis B. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because DTaP (B), MMR (C), and Varicella (D) vaccines are not typically administered at birth. DTaP is given in a series starting at 2 months, MMR is usually given around 12-15 months, and Varicella is given between 12-15 months of age.

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