Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a postoperative client who has a chest tube connected to suction and a water seal drainage system. Which of the following indicates to the healthcare provider that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of fluid in the drainage tubing
• C. Continuous bubbling within the water seal chamber
• D. Equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber indicates proper functioning of the chest tube. This fluctuation reflects the normal ebb and flow of air and fluid in the pleural space, demonstrating that the system is maintaining the appropriate pressure. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber may indicate an air leak, absence of fluid in the drainage tubing suggests a blockage, and equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber are not expected in this system.

2. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

3. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?

• A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
• B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
• C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
• D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of seizures. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. The client is experiencing an aura.
• B. The client's antiseizure medication level is within the therapeutic range.
• C. The client has been seizure-free for 2 years.
• D. The client's seizure activity lasts longer than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate intervention as it can lead to status epilepticus, a medical emergency.

5. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
• B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
• C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
• D. Monitor the client for headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.

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