Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a postoperative client who has a chest tube connected to suction and a water seal drainage system. Which of the following indicates to the healthcare provider that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of fluid in the drainage tubing
• C. Continuous bubbling within the water seal chamber
• D. Equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber indicates proper functioning of the chest tube. This fluctuation reflects the normal ebb and flow of air and fluid in the pleural space, demonstrating that the system is maintaining the appropriate pressure. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber may indicate an air leak, absence of fluid in the drainage tubing suggests a blockage, and equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber are not expected in this system.

2. A client had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Observe for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the evacuation site.
• B. Assess for an increase in temperature.
• C. Check the oximeter.
• D. Monitor for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client who had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma, the nurse's priority is to check the oximeter. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, especially after such a procedure. This assessment helps in early detection of hypoxemia, which can be detrimental to the client's recovery. While observing for CSF leaks, assessing for temperature changes, and monitoring for signs of increased intracranial pressure are important, checking the oximeter takes precedence to address immediate oxygenation needs.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6� C (97.8� F) to 37� C (98.6� F)
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

4. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active, and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to walk for 5 minutes each hour.
• B. Refer the client for smoking cessation classes.
• C. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing.
• D. Explain to the client that sometimes no cause for the disease is found.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including pulmonary embolism (PE). In a case where a client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this genetic disorder is crucial to determine if it is a contributing factor. Encouraging the client to walk or referring them to smoking cessation classes, while beneficial for overall health, are not directly relevant to the development of a PE in this specific case. While it is true that sometimes no cause for a disease is found, prematurely assuming this without appropriate investigations may lead to missed opportunities for preventive measures or treatments.

5. A client with dyspnea and difficulty climbing stairs is classified as having class III dyspnea. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assistance with activities of daily living.
• B. Daily physical therapy activities.
• C. Oxygen therapy at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
• D. Complete bedrest with frequent repositioning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Class III dyspnea indicates significant limitations in activity due to shortness of breath. Clients with this level of dyspnea should be encouraged to participate in activities within their tolerance levels. Providing assistance with activities of daily living helps conserve energy for essential tasks while promoting independence. Oxygen therapy is only necessary if hypoxia is present, and complete bedrest is generally not recommended for clients with dyspnea unless specifically indicated.

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