ATI RN
ATI Detailed Answer Key Medical Surgical
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a postoperative client who has a chest tube connected to suction and a water seal drainage system. Which of the following indicates to the healthcare provider that the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber
- B. Absence of fluid in the drainage tubing
- C. Continuous bubbling within the water seal chamber
- D. Equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fluctuation of the fluid level within the water seal chamber indicates proper functioning of the chest tube. This fluctuation reflects the normal ebb and flow of air and fluid in the pleural space, demonstrating that the system is maintaining the appropriate pressure. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber may indicate an air leak, absence of fluid in the drainage tubing suggests a blockage, and equal amounts of fluid drainage in each collection chamber are not expected in this system.
2. A client in an emergency department has a sucking chest wound resulting from a gunshot. The client has a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, a weak pulse rate of 118/min, and a respiratory rate of 40/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Raise the foot of the bed to a 90� angle
- B. Remove the dressing to inspect the wound
- C. Prepare to insert a central line
- D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a sucking chest wound, the priority is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula to improve oxygenation. The client's blood pressure, weak pulse rate, and elevated respiratory rate indicate hypovolemic shock, so increasing oxygen supply is crucial. Raising the foot of the bed, removing the dressing, or preparing to insert a central line are not immediate actions needed for a client with a sucking chest wound and signs of shock.
3. When caring for a client with Alzheimer's disease, what is the most appropriate communication technique for a nurse to use?
- A. Providing detailed explanations
- B. Speaking in a loud and clear voice
- C. Using simple and direct statements
- D. Offering multiple choices to the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When communicating with clients with Alzheimer's disease, using simple and direct statements is the most appropriate technique. This approach helps to minimize confusion, enhance understanding, and facilitate effective communication with individuals who may have difficulty processing complex information due to their condition.
4. A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
- B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
- C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
- D. Administer morphine sulfate IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation and reduce the workload on the heart. Providing supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress. This intervention can help improve oxygen saturation, alleviate dyspnea, and support the client's respiratory function. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent can also help with respiratory effort, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence. Sublingual nitroglycerin and IV morphine sulfate are commonly used interventions for cardiac-related conditions, but in this case, addressing oxygenation is the priority to prevent further deterioration.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
- C. Client reports shortness of breath
- D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
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