ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions And Answers
1. The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation on dabigatran (Pradaxa). What is the most important instruction to give to the client?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Do not miss a dose and take it at the same time each day.
- C. Avoid consuming alcohol while on this medication.
- D. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction to give to a client on dabigatran (Pradaxa) is not to miss a dose and take it at the same time each day. This is crucial for maintaining the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Choice A is not necessary as dabigatran does not need to be taken with food. Choice C is important but not as crucial as ensuring proper dosing. Choice D is also important but falls behind in priority compared to maintaining consistent dosing.
2. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Increased cardiac output
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.
3. What type of imaging test uses X-rays to visualize the blood vessels after injecting them with a contrast dye?
- A. Angiography
- B. CT scan
- C. MRI
- D. Ultrasound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Angiography is the correct answer because it is an imaging test that specifically uses X-rays to visualize blood vessels by injecting them with a contrast dye. This procedure is crucial for diagnosing conditions such as blockages or aneurysms. The other options, CT scan, MRI, and ultrasound, do not involve the use of contrast dye to visualize blood vessels with X-rays.
4. The nurse is teaching a client about side effects of ACE inhibitors. What is the most important side effect to monitor?
- A. Cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough in patients. This side effect is important to monitor because it can indicate the development of angioedema, a serious adverse reaction that requires immediate medical attention. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not typically the most important one to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also possible side effects of ACE inhibitors, but they are not as critical to monitor as the development of a persistent cough.
5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement.
- B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
- D. Administer Digibind.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.
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