Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a subtotal gastrectomy. To manage dumping syndrome, the nurse should advise the client to:

• A. restrict fluid intake to 1 qt (1,000 ml)/day.
• B. drink liquids only with meals.
• C. don't drink liquids 2 hours before meals.
• D. drink liquids only between meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client who experiences dumping syndrome after a subtotal gastrectomy should be advised to ingest liquids between meals rather than with meals. Taking fluids between meals allows for adequate hydration, reduces the amount of bulk ingested with meals, and aids in preventing rapid gastric emptying. There is no need to restrict the amount of fluids, just the time when the client drinks fluids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the risk of dumping syndrome by increasing the amount of bulk and stimulating rapid gastric emptying. Small amounts of water are allowable before meals.

2. Elmer is scheduled for a proctoscopy and has an I.V. The doctor wrote an order for 5mg of I.V. diazepam(Valium). Which order is correct regarding diazepam?

• A. Give diazepam in the I.V. port closest to the vein.
• B. Mix diazepam with 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water and give over 15 minutes.
• C. Give diazepam rapidly I.V. to prevent the bloodstream from diluting the drug mixture.
• D. Question the order because I.V. administration of diazepam is contraindicated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct method for administering I.V. diazepam is to give it in the I.V. port closest to the vein.

3. A client with viral hepatitis is discussing with the nurse the need to avoid alcohol and states, 'I’m not sure I can avoid alcohol.' The most appropriate response is

• A. Everything will be alright.
• B. I think you should talk more with the doctor about this.
• C. I don’t believe that.
• D. I’m not sure that I don’t understand. Would you please explain?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response in this situation is to seek clarification from the client by saying, 'I’m not sure that I don’t understand. Would you please explain?' This response shows empathy and a willingness to listen, encouraging the client to elaborate on their concerns. False reassurance (Choice A) is not helpful as it dismisses the client's feelings. Suggesting to talk more with the doctor (Choice B) may deflect from addressing the client's immediate concerns. Expressing disbelief (Choice C) can create a barrier to open communication, making the client feel unsupported.

4. You have a patient with achalasia (incomplete muscle relaxation of the GI tract, especially sphincter muscles). Which medications do you anticipate to administer?

• A. Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)
• B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Propanolol (Inderal)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is a medication used to relax the muscles of the GI tract in patients with achalasia.

5. Colon cancer is most closely associated with which of the following conditions?

• A. Appendicitis
• B. Hemorrhoids
• C. Hiatal hernia
• D. Ulcerative colitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a condition closely associated with an increased risk of developing colon cancer due to chronic inflammation of the colon.

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