Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital after vomiting bright red blood and is diagnosed with a bleeding duodenal ulcer. The client develops a sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric area along with a rigid, boardlike abdomen. These clinical manifestations most likely indicate which of the following?

• A. An intestinal obstruction has developed
• B. Additional ulcers have developed
• C. The esophagus has become inflamed
• D. The ulcer has perforated

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric area along with a rigid, boardlike abdomen indicates that the ulcer has perforated.

2. The client with Crohn’s disease has a nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain. The nurse would teach the client to avoid which of the following in managing this problem?

• A. Lying supine with the legs straight
• B. Massaging the abdomen
• C. Using antispasmodic medication
• D. Using relaxation techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In managing acute pain associated with Crohn’s disease, the client should avoid lying supine with the legs straight. This position increases muscle tension in the abdomen, potentially aggravating inflamed intestinal tissues as the abdominal muscles are stretched. Massaging the abdomen, using antispasmodic medication, and employing relaxation techniques are beneficial in alleviating pain. Massaging can help relax abdominal muscles, antispasmodic medication can reduce spasms contributing to pain, and relaxation techniques aid in overall pain management. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for managing pain in clients with CroCrohn’s disease.

3. A client with viral hepatitis has no appetite, and food makes the client nauseated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

• A. Explain that high-fat diets usually are tolerated better.
• B. Encourage intake of foods high in protein.
• C. Explain that the majority of calories need to be consumed in the evening hours.
• D. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If nausea occurs and persists, the client will need to be assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Explaining to the client that the majority of calories should be eaten in the morning hours is important because nausea occurs most often in the afternoon and evening. Clients should select a diet high in calories because energy is required for healing. Protein increases the workload on the liver. Changes in bilirubin interfere with fat absorption, so low-fat diets are tolerated better.

4. A client with peptic ulcer is scheduled for a Vagotomy. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. The nurse tells the client that the procedure

• A. Decreases food absorption in the stomach.
• B. Heals the gastric mucosa.
• C. Halts stress reactions.
• D. Reduces the stimulus to acid secretions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A vagotomy, or cutting of the vagus nerve, is done to eliminate parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretion, thereby reducing the stimulus to acid secretions. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as a vagotomy does not affect food absorption, heal the gastric mucosa, or halt stress reactions.

5. Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?

• A. Low-fiber diet
• B. High-fiber diet
• C. High-protein diet
• D. Low-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low-fiber diet is implicated in the development of diverticulosis because it leads to harder stools and increased pressure in the colon. The lack of fiber results in decreased bulk and slower transit time, predisposing individuals to constipation and the formation of diverticula. High-fiber diets, on the other hand, promote regular bowel movements and help prevent diverticular disease. High-protein and low-carbohydrate diets do not have a direct association with diverticulosis.

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