Nursing Elites

1. The client has had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. The nurse interprets that

• A. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.
• B. This is a normal, expected event.
• C. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
• D. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.

2. An intubated patient is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a Salem sump tube at a rate of 60ml/hr. Gastric residuals have been 30-40ml when monitored Q4H. You check the gastric residual and aspirate 220ml. What is your first response to this finding?

• A. Notify the doctor immediately.
• B. Stop the feeding, and clamp the NG tube.
• C. Discard the 220ml, and clamp the NG tube.
• D. Give a prescribed GI stimulant such as metoclopramide (Reglan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If gastric residuals are high during continuous enteral feedings, the first response is to stop the feeding and clamp the NG tube.

3. Leigh Ann is receiving pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis. Which observation best indicates the treatment is effective?

• A. There is no skin breakdown.
• B. Her appetite improves.
• C. She loses more than 10 lbs.
• D. Stools are less fatty and decreased in frequency.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The effectiveness of pancrelipase (Viokase) for chronic pancreatitis is best indicated by stools being less fatty and decreased in frequency.

4. If a gastric acid perforates, which of the following actions should not be included in the immediate management of the client?

• A. Blood replacement
• B. Antacid administration
• C. Nasogastric tube suction
• D. Fluid and electrolyte replacement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antacid administration should not be included in the immediate management of a gastric perforation.

5. A client is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection with permanent colostomy. Which of the following measures would most likely be included in the plan for the client's preoperative preparation?

• A. Keep the client NPO for 2 days before surgery.
• B. Administer kanamycin (Kantrex) the night before surgery.
• C. Inform the client that chest tubes will be in place after surgery.
• D. Advise the client to limit activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antibiotics are administered preoperatively to reduce the bacterial count in the colon. The client will be placed on a low residue diet to help cleanse the bowel before surgery but typically is not placed on NPO status until 8 to 12 hours before surgery. Laxatives and enemas may also be administered. Chest tubes would not be expected postoperatively. There is no need to limit the client's activity before surgery.

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