Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. aPTT
• B. INR
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.

2. What diagnostic procedure uses sound waves to create images of the heart and assess its structure and function?

• A. Echocardiogram
• B. MRI
• C. CT scan
• D. X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An echocardiogram is the correct answer because it is a diagnostic procedure that uses sound waves to create images of the heart, enabling doctors to assess its structure and function. This imaging technique is specifically designed for cardiac assessment. MRI (Choice B), CT scan (Choice C), and X-ray (Choice D) are imaging modalities that are not primarily used for detailed evaluation of the heart's structure and function, making them incorrect choices for this question.

3. Which test measures how well the lungs work by assessing the amount of air the lungs can hold and how quickly air can be exhaled?

• A. Spirometry
• B. Pulse oximetry
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
• D. Chest X-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Spirometry. Spirometry is a pulmonary function test that evaluates lung function by measuring the amount of air a person can exhale and how quickly, assisting in the diagnosis of conditions such as asthma and COPD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood, Arterial blood gas (ABG) evaluates blood pH, oxygen, and carbon dioxide levels, and a Chest X-ray provides an image of the lungs but does not measure lung function.

4. The client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Continue the current digoxin dose
• D. Administer Digibind

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin and low potassium levels can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a potassium supplement (choice A) without healthcare provider guidance can worsen the situation. Continuing the current digoxin dose (choice C) can further increase the risk of toxicity. Administering Digibind (choice D) is used in severe cases of digoxin toxicity, not for addressing low potassium levels.

5. The client is on enalapril (Vasotec) for hypertension. What side effect is most commonly associated with this medication?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril. ACE inhibitors can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and resulting in a persistent dry cough. Hypotension (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common than a dry cough. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is another side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not the most commonly associated one. Headache (choice D) is not a common side effect of enalapril compared to a dry cough. Therefore, the most commonly associated side effect with enalapril is a dry cough.

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