Nursing Elites

1. The nurse administers 2 units of salt-poor albumin to a client with portal hypertension and ascites. The nurse explains to the client that this is administered to:

• A. Provide nutrients
• B. Increase protein stores
• C. Elevate the circulating blood volume
• D. Divert blood flow away from the liver temporarily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevate the circulating blood volume. Salt-poor albumin is given to increase the circulating blood volume, which helps reduce ascites by improving fluid distribution within the body. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because salt-poor albumin is not administered to provide nutrients, increase protein stores, or divert blood flow away from the liver.

2. A patient taking anticoagulants should be cautious about consuming which type of food?

• A. High-protein foods
• B. High-fiber foods
• C. High-vitamin K foods
• D. High-calcium foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High-vitamin K foods. Foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of anticoagulants. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in blood clotting, so consuming high amounts of it can counteract the anticoagulant effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly interfere with the action of anticoagulants.

3. The two members of the health care team who work closely to monitor drug-nutrient interactions are:

• A. Physician and nurse
• B. Physician and pharmacist
• C. Nurse and clinical dietitian
• D. Clinical dietitian and pharmacist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clinical dietitians and pharmacists work together to manage drug-nutrient interactions. They have the expertise to understand how medications and nutrients can interact in the body, potentially affecting the effectiveness of treatment. Physicians and nurses may be involved in patient care, but when it comes to monitoring drug-nutrient interactions, the specialized knowledge of clinical dietitians and pharmacists is crucial. Nurses and physicians typically focus more on administering medications and managing overall patient care, rather than the specific interactions between drugs and nutrients.

4. What signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?

• A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
• B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
• C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
• D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis.' Insulinomas cause hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production, leading to symptoms such as nervousness (from the sympathetic response to hypoglycemia), jitteriness, and diaphoresis (sweating). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (Choice B) are not typical signs of insulinoma. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (Choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinoma. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (Choice D) are more indicative of hyperthyroidism or a hypermetabolic state, rather than an insulinoma presentation.

5. Before administering an MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine to a 15-month-old, which question should the nurse ask the mother of the child?

• A. “Has your child had any sore throats?”
• B. “Has your child been eating properly?”
• C. “Is your child allergic to any antibiotics?”
• D. “Has your child been exposed to any infections?”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question for the nurse to ask the mother before administering the MMR vaccine to a 15-month-old is about the child's allergy to antibiotics. This is crucial because the MMR vaccine contains neomycin, an antibiotic, and being allergic to antibiotics like neomycin is a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Asking about sore throats, eating habits, or exposure to infections is not directly relevant to the administration of the MMR vaccine.

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