Nursing Elites

1. The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:

• A. It takes at least three chemical substances (amino acids, neuropeptides, and monoamines) to stimulate any activity between the cells.
• B. There is a symbiotic relationship; therefore, the end result will be depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.
• C. The combination of GABA with a receptor site is inhibitory since it causes the local nerve membrane to become hyperpolarized and less excitable.
• D. The neurotransmitters will interact with cholinergic receptors to bind to acetylcholine in order to produce hypopolarization within the cell.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When GABA binds with a receptor site, it causes hyperpolarization of the local nerve membrane, making it less excitable. This hyperpolarization leads to inhibition of nerve cell activity. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is a neurotransmitter itself and does not require three chemical substances to stimulate activity between cells. Choice B is incorrect as GABA triggers inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs), leading to hyperpolarization, not depolarization, of the postsynaptic membrane. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a process involving cholinergic receptors and acetylcholine, which is unrelated to GABA's mechanism of action.

2. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:

• A. asymptomatic.
• B. acute flare.
• C. the intercritical period.
• D. chronic gout.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.

3. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:

• A. Alive, but less infectious
• B. Mutated, but highly infectious
• C. Normal, but not infectious
• D. Inactive, but infectious

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An attenuated antigen used in a vaccine is alive but less infectious, aiming to stimulate an immune response. Choice B is incorrect because an attenuated antigen is not highly infectious. Choice C is incorrect as the antigen is intentionally altered to be less infectious. Choice D is incorrect as an attenuated antigen is not infectious.

4. When educating a patient starting on oral contraceptives, what should the nurse include in the teaching plan regarding potential side effects?

• A. Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea
• B. Increased appetite, insomnia, and fatigue
• C. Breast tenderness, headaches, and dizziness
• D. Fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain, mood changes, and nausea are common side effects of oral contraceptives. Weight gain may occur due to fluid retention or changes in metabolism. Mood changes can be caused by hormonal fluctuations. Nausea is a common side effect that usually improves after a few months of use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect common side effects associated with oral contraceptives. Increased appetite, insomnia, breast tenderness, headaches, dizziness, fatigue, hair loss, and joint pain are not typically reported side effects of oral contraceptives.

5. A public health nurse is responsible for the administration of numerous immunizations. Which of the following guidelines regarding anaphylaxis should the nurse adhere to?

• A. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 1 minute after administration.
• B. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 5 minutes after administration.
• C. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.
• D. The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 90 minutes after administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The patient should be observed for anaphylaxis for 30 minutes after administration.' This is because anaphylaxis can occur within minutes of administration of an immunization. By observing the patient for 30 minutes, the nurse can promptly identify and manage any signs of anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they suggest shorter or longer observation periods, which may not be sufficient to detect and respond to anaphylaxis in a timely manner.

Similar Questions