the neurotransmitter gaba mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials ipsps therefore when explaining this to a group of nursing st
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

WGU Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. The neurotransmitter GABA mainly functions to trigger inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs). Therefore, when explaining this to a group of nursing students, the nurse will state:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When GABA binds with a receptor site, it causes hyperpolarization of the local nerve membrane, making it less excitable. This hyperpolarization leads to inhibition of nerve cell activity. Choice A is incorrect because GABA is a neurotransmitter itself and does not require three chemical substances to stimulate activity between cells. Choice B is incorrect as GABA triggers inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs), leading to hyperpolarization, not depolarization, of the postsynaptic membrane. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a process involving cholinergic receptors and acetylcholine, which is unrelated to GABA's mechanism of action.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by simultaneous clotting and bleeding throughout the body. This imbalance in the body's clotting system leads to the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels, which can consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the characteristic feature of DIC, which involves both clotting and bleeding.

3. A 60-year-old male patient presents with severe and persistent pain in his left leg and hip that worsens with activity. After further evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true about osteosarcoma?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be found in any bone but is most commonly located in the long bones of the legs. While it is more prevalent in children and young adults, it can also occur in older individuals like the 60-year-old male patient in this case. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better prognosis in osteosarcoma cases. Therefore, all the statements provided are true regarding osteosarcoma, making option D the correct answer. Option A is accurate as osteosarcoma is more common in children and young adults. Option B is correct as early diagnosis improves the prognosis. Option C is accurate as osteosarcoma is frequently located in the leg bones.

4. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.

5. What critical point should the nurse include in patient education regarding tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for a patient with breast cancer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism. Patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots, such as swelling, redness, and pain in the legs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because tamoxifen is not associated with causing hot flashes, weight gain, fluid retention, or decreasing the risk of osteoporosis.

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