Nursing Elites

1. The manager of a medical-surgical unit is very task-motivated. Using Fiedler's Contingency Theory, under what circumstances would the manager be most effective?

• A. Only during highly stressful situations.
• B. When there is little to no stress.
• C. Under highly structured situations.
• D. When the situation is loosely structured.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: According to Fiedler's Contingency Theory, task-motivated managers are most effective under highly structured situations. This is because in such environments, where priorities are clear and tasks are well-defined, task-oriented managers can excel in organizing and accomplishing objectives efficiently. Choices A and B are incorrect because the effectiveness of a task-motivated manager is not solely linked to stress levels but rather to the structure of the situation. Choice D is also incorrect as a loosely structured situation would not provide the clarity and direction that a task-motivated manager thrives in.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to be transferred to a long-term care facility. The client's family questions the nurse about the reasons for the transfer. Which of the following responses made by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. The transfer of your family member is being done because the provider knows what's best.
• B. Would you like us to discuss the transfer with your family member?
• C. Why are you so concerned about this transfer?
• D. I know how you feel. My parent had to be transferred to a long-term care facility.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A because it provides a professional and reassuring explanation for the transfer, focusing on the expertise of the healthcare provider. Choice B offers to include the family member in the discussion, which may not address their concerns directly. Choice C appears defensive and does not address the family's inquiry. Choice D shifts the focus to the nurse's personal experience, which may not be relevant or helpful to the family seeking information about their own situation.

3. What is the main focus of health literacy initiatives?

• A. To promote the use of medical jargon
• B. To improve patient communication skills
• C. To ensure that patients understand their health information
• D. To reduce the use of electronic health records

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main focus of health literacy initiatives is to ensure that patients understand their health information. By improving patient comprehension, individuals can make informed decisions about their health, leading to better health outcomes. Promoting the use of medical jargon would have the opposite effect, making health information less accessible. Improving patient communication skills is important but not the primary focus of health literacy initiatives. Electronic health records are tools for managing health information and not directly related to the main goal of health literacy initiatives.

4. The healthcare provider is developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure (CHF). Which components are essential to include? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

• A. Expected length of stay
• B. Assigned staff healthcare provider
• C. Patient outcomes
• D. Medical diagnosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Critical pathways are designed to outline the expected sequence and timing of interventions to achieve optimal patient outcomes for a specific medical condition. Components such as the expected length of stay, patient outcomes, and medical diagnosis are crucial in developing a critical pathway for congestive heart failure. However, the assigned staff healthcare provider is not typically a fixed component of a critical pathway as it may vary based on staffing schedules and rotations. Therefore, the assigned staff healthcare provider is the component that does not apply.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Pad the client's wrists before applying the restraints.
• B. Evaluate the client's circulation every 8 hours after application.
• C. Secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails.
• D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours to evaluate the client's status.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.

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