Nursing Elites

1. Which type of immunity is demonstrated by the transfer of a mother's immunoglobulin across the placenta to protect the child?

• A. Natural active immunity
• B. Natural passive immunity
• C. Artificial active immunity
• D. Artificial passive immunity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The immunoglobulin passed from the mother to the child through the placenta is an example of natural passive immunity, making choice B the correct answer. This transfer gives the child temporary immunity to various diseases without their immune system having to work. On the other hand, natural active immunity (Choice A) occurs when the body produces its own antibodies in response to an antigen. Artificial active immunity (Choice C) is achieved through vaccinations, where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific disease. Artificial passive immunity (Choice D) is a temporary immunity that involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another source.

2. In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:

• A. ECG
• B. General Anesthesia
• C. EEG
• D. MRI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.

3. Keeping Conrad’s head and neck alignment results in:

• A. increased intrathoracic pressure
• B. increased venous outflow
• C. decreased venous outflow
• D. increased intraabdominal pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

4. Which of the following is a form of primary prevention?

• A. Regular Check-ups
• B. Regular Screening
• C. Self-Medication
• D. Immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Immunization.' Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Immunization is a classic example of primary prevention as it helps prevent the development of infectious diseases. Choice A, 'Regular Check-ups,' is more related to secondary prevention by detecting diseases early. Choice B, 'Regular Screening,' is also more aligned with secondary prevention as it involves early detection of diseases. Choice C, 'Self-Medication,' is not a form of primary prevention but rather a risky practice that can lead to adverse outcomes.

5. What is a major goal for home care nurses?

• A. Restoring maximum health function.
• B. Promoting the health of populations.
• C. Minimizing the progress of disease.
• D. Maintaining the health of populations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A major goal for home care nurses is restoring maximum health function. This involves helping patients achieve their highest level of health and independence, focusing on individualized care plans tailored to each patient's needs. Choice B, promoting the health of populations, is more aligned with public health nursing rather than home care nursing. Choice C, minimizing the progress of disease, is important but not as comprehensive as restoring maximum health function. Choice D, maintaining the health of populations, is more about preventive care at a population level rather than the individualized care provided by home care nurses.

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