ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. The GAUGE size in ET tubes determines:
- A. The external circumference of the tube
- B. The internal diameter of the tube
- C. The length of the tube
- D. The tube’s volumetric capacity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
2. While evaluating the meal choices of a client with major depressive disorder and a prescription of Phenelzine, which of the following selections should the nurse identify as appropriate?
- A. Cheddar cheese
- B. Smoked salmon
- C. Strawberry yogurt
- D. Pepperoni pizza
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Strawberry yogurt.' This choice is appropriate because it does not contain high levels of tyramine, which can lead to a dangerous interaction with Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Tyramine-rich foods, like aged cheeses (such as cheddar cheese) and cured meats (like smoked salmon and pepperoni), should be avoided by individuals taking Phenelzine to prevent hypertensive crisis. Strawberry yogurt is a safer option for the client in this scenario.
3. Which of the following treatments is not recommended for a child classified with no dehydration?
- A. Administering 1,000 ml to 1,400 ml within 4 hours
- B. Continuing feeding
- C. Allowing the child to take as much fluid as he wants
- D. Returning the child to the doctor if the condition worsens
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Continuing feeding is a recommended treatment for a child classified with no dehydration. This helps maintain the child's nutritional status and supports recovery. Options A, C, and D are appropriate interventions for a child with no dehydration. Option A ensures adequate fluid intake, option C promotes hydration, and option D ensures appropriate follow-up if the condition worsens.
4. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
5. What effect does the use of a hot compress have, as explained to Ronnie who has been prescribed pain medication?
- A. It produces an anesthetic effect
- B. It increases nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing
- C. It increases oxygenation to the injured tissues for better healing
- D. It induces vasoconstriction to prevent infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It produces an anesthetic effect.' Hot compresses can help alleviate pain by producing an anesthetic effect, which numbs the area. Choice B is incorrect because a hot compress does not directly increase nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing. Choice C is also incorrect because a hot compress primarily aids in pain relief rather than increasing oxygenation to the tissues for enhanced healing. Choice D is incorrect because hot compresses typically lead to vasodilation, not vasoconstriction, which aids in promoting blood flow rather than preventing infection. Safe and effective patient care relies on actions based on established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
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