the client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache how does the nurse explain this
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Physical Exam Cardiovascular System

1. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. How does the nurse explain this?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'This is a normal side effect of nitroglycerin.' Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to nitroglycerin typically present with symptoms like rash, itching, or shortness of breath. Choice C is incorrect as an overdose of nitroglycerin would likely present with symptoms beyond just a headache. Choice D is incorrect because headaches related to nitroglycerin are not indicative of heart failure.

2. What is a condition where the walls of the arteries become thickened and stiff, often due to the buildup of plaque, leading to reduced blood flow?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the thickening and stiffening of artery walls due to plaque buildup, which restricts blood flow. Angina (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, not directly related to arterial wall thickening. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to irregular heart rhythms and is not specifically linked to artery wall changes like atherosclerosis.

3. The nurse is giving nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain. What is the most important instruction to give to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The tablet should be placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve completely to ensure rapid absorption. This route of administration allows the medication to be quickly absorbed into the bloodstream. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is meant to be absorbed sublingually, not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect as chewing the tablet can cause the medication to be rapidly absorbed, leading to adverse effects like a drop in blood pressure. Choice D is incorrect because the client should take only one tablet every 5 minutes up to a maximum of three tablets for chest pain relief.

4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 1.2. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the dose of warfarin. An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating that the dose is subtherapeutic. The priority action in this situation is to adjust the dose to achieve the target therapeutic INR range (usually 2-3) to prevent thromboembolic events. Administering vitamin K is not necessary as the INR is low, and there are no signs of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority in this case since the INR is subtherapeutic. Holding the next dose and notifying the healthcare provider would delay the intervention needed to adjust the dose and achieve the therapeutic range.

5. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

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