the client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache how does the nurse explain this
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Physical Exam Cardiovascular System

1. The client on nitroglycerin complains of a headache. How does the nurse explain this?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'This is a normal side effect of nitroglycerin.' Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to vasodilation. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to nitroglycerin typically present with symptoms like rash, itching, or shortness of breath. Choice C is incorrect as an overdose of nitroglycerin would likely present with symptoms beyond just a headache. Choice D is incorrect because headaches related to nitroglycerin are not indicative of heart failure.

2. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

3. A client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure. Administering the beta blocker can potentially worsen the situation, leading to complications. Administering a diuretic or continuing to monitor the client without taking immediate action could delay necessary intervention. Therefore, holding the beta blocker and involving the healthcare provider promptly is crucial in this scenario.

4. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

5. The client has a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin. What is the nurse's instruction for how to take this medication during an episode of chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The standard instruction for sublingual nitroglycerin during an episode of chest pain is to take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets. If the pain persists after taking three tablets, the client should seek emergency help. Choice B is incorrect because taking one tablet every hour is not the appropriate dosing for acute chest pain. Choice C is incorrect as taking two tablets immediately is not in line with the recommended dosing instructions. Choice D is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should be placed under the tongue, not swallowed with water.

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