ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- B. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
- C. Instruct the client to monitor their symptoms at home.
- D. Suggest the client reduce physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath, it can be indicative of pulmonary toxicity, a severe side effect associated with this medication. The nurse's priority is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Choice B is incorrect because shortness of breath with amiodarone should not be dismissed as a common side effect. Instructing the client to monitor symptoms at home (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Suggesting the client reduce physical activity (Choice D) does not address the potential serious nature of the symptom and the need for prompt evaluation.
2. What test measures the electrical activity of the heart over a period of time, typically 24 to 48 hours?
- A. Holter monitor
- B. Echocardiogram
- C. Stress test
- D. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Holter monitor. A Holter monitor is a portable device that records the electrical activity of the heart over a period of 24 to 48 hours. It is used to detect arrhythmias and other heart conditions. Choice B, Echocardiogram, is a test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart's structure and function, not focused on the electrical activity. Choice C, Stress test, evaluates the heart's function under stress but does not monitor electrical activity over an extended period. Choice D, Arterial blood gas (ABG), measures the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood, unrelated to measuring the electrical activity of the heart over time.
3. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) should avoid which type of food?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone specifically affects potassium levels, not sodium, calcium, or chloride.
4. The client is on dobutamine. Adverse effects of Dobutrex (dobutamine) include the following: Select all that apply.
- A. Heart failure
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Dobutamine is a medication that primarily increases heart rate (tachycardia) and blood pressure. Therefore, the adverse effects of dobutamine include tachycardia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Heart failure is not an adverse effect of dobutamine; in fact, it is used to treat heart failure by increasing heart contractility. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not an expected adverse effect of dobutamine, as it usually increases heart rate. Respiratory distress is not a common adverse effect of dobutamine.
5. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
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