Nursing Elites

1. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. PT/INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.

2. What is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the small airways in the lungs, leading to episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, and coughing?

• A. Asthma
• B. COPD
• C. Bronchitis
• D. Lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asthma is the correct answer. It is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the small airways in the lungs, leading to symptoms like wheezing, breathlessness, and coughing. Asthma is commonly triggered by allergens, exercise, respiratory infections, and other factors. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is characterized by airflow limitation and is often caused by smoking. Choice C, Bronchitis, is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes and can be acute or chronic. Choice D, Lung cancer, is a disease characterized by uncontrolled cell growth in lung tissues and is commonly associated with smoking or environmental factors.

3. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?

• A. ACE inhibitor
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Diuretic
• D. Calcium channel blocker

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

4. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?

• A. Foods high in potassium
• B. Foods high in sodium
• C. Foods high in calcium
• D. Foods high in chloride

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.

5. The client on nitroglycerin patches reports dizziness when standing up. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Advise the client to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
• B. Instruct the client to discontinue the nitroglycerin patches.
• C. Encourage the client to rest and avoid physical activity.
• D. Suggest the client take an over-the-counter antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly to prevent dizziness. Dizziness when standing up can be a sign of orthostatic hypotension, a common side effect of nitroglycerin. Rising slowly can help minimize this symptom. Instructing the client to discontinue the nitroglycerin patches (Choice B) is not appropriate without consulting a healthcare provider as sudden discontinuation can lead to adverse effects. Encouraging the client to rest and avoid physical activity (Choice C) does not address the specific issue of orthostatic hypotension. Suggesting the client take an over-the-counter antiemetic (Choice D) is not indicated for dizziness related to orthostatic hypotension.

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