ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?
- A. Platelet count
- B. PT/INR
- C. aPTT
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.
2. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.
3. Which of the following is a central vasodilator and peripheral vasoconstrictor?
- A. Sympathetic nervous system
- B. Parasympathetic nervous system
- C. Norepinephrine
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the Sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system is a branch of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for the fight-or-flight response. It causes vasodilation in central vessels to increase blood flow to vital organs during stress or exercise, while inducing vasoconstriction in peripheral vessels to redirect blood to essential areas. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters associated with the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, respectively, but they are not themselves central vasodilators and peripheral vasoconstrictors.
4. What is a condition where the heart muscle becomes thickened without an obvious cause, leading to a reduction in the heart's ability to pump blood?
- A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Myocarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by the abnormal thickening of the heart muscle without an obvious cause, which impairs the heart's ability to effectively pump blood. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers, not thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) refers to the stiffening of the heart muscle, limiting its ability to fill properly. Myocarditis (choice D) is inflammation of the heart muscle usually caused by a viral infection, not thickening.
5. What test uses sound waves to create pictures of the heart, allowing doctors to see how well the heart is functioning?
- A. Echocardiogram
- B. MRI
- C. CT scan
- D. X-ray
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an echocardiogram. This test utilizes sound waves to generate images of the heart, enabling doctors to evaluate both the function and structure of the heart. Choice B, MRI, uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of the body's organs and structures, not specifically focused on the heart. Choice C, CT scan, employs X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body, not primarily for the heart. Choice D, X-ray, uses electromagnetic radiation to produce images of internal structures, but it does not provide the detailed pictures of the heart's function that an echocardiogram does.
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