Nursing Elites

1. The client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox) for DVT prophylaxis. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

• A. Platelet count
• B. PT/INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. When a client is on enoxaparin (Lovenox), monitoring the platelet count is crucial as enoxaparin can lead to a rare but serious side effect known as heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), causing a decrease in platelet count. Monitoring the platelet count helps detect this adverse reaction early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enoxaparin therapy does not directly affect PT/INR, aPTT, or hemoglobin levels.

2. Which condition is characterized by chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle?

• A. Angina
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Arrhythmia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Angina. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, often due to coronary artery disease. Choice B, Myocardial infarction, involves the death of heart muscle tissue due to a lack of blood supply, presenting with symptoms similar to angina but more severe. Pericarditis (Choice C) is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which may cause chest pain but is not primarily due to reduced blood flow. Arrhythmia (Choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms but is not directly related to chest pain due to reduced blood flow.

3. This test measures the amount of blood the heart pumps with each beat, often used to assess heart function.

• A. Ejection fraction
• B. Cardiac output
• C. Stroke volume
• D. End-diastolic volume

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ejection fraction. Ejection fraction is a measure of the percentage of blood that is pumped out of the left ventricle with each beat, used to assess heart function. Choice B, Cardiac output, is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is not specific to each beat. Choice C, Stroke volume, is the amount of blood ejected by the heart in one contraction but does not specify the percentage of blood pumped out. Choice D, End-diastolic volume, is the volume of blood in the ventricle just before it contracts and does not directly measure the blood pumped with each beat.

4. What term describes the phenomenon wherein decreased BP causes a reflex SNS response with increased pulse, increased contractility, and vasoconstriction; and increased BP causes reflex vagal responses resulting in decreased heart rate and passive vasodilation in the systemic arterioles?

• A. Baroreflex
• B. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
• C. Frank-Starling Law
• D. Starling reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Baroreflex. The Baroreflex is a mechanism by which the body maintains blood pressure homeostasis through reflexive adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes breathing, is a pattern of breathing characterized by progressively deeper and sometimes faster breathing, followed by a gradual decrease that results in a temporary stop in breathing. Choices C and D, Frank-Starling Law and Starling reflex, are related to the intrinsic ability of the heart to adjust its output based on venous return, not specifically regulating blood pressure through reflex adjustments in heart rate and vascular tone as seen in the described phenomenon.

5. The nurse is administering an ACE inhibitor to a client. What is the most common side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Cough is a well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors due to an increase in bradykinin levels. This irritating cough can be bothersome to clients and should be monitored. Choice B, Dizziness, is not the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors can cause hypotension (Choice C), cough is more prevalent. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common compared to cough.

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