Nursing Elites

1. The client is on enalapril (Vasotec) for hypertension. What side effect is most commonly associated with this medication?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril. ACE inhibitors can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to irritation of the respiratory tract and resulting in a persistent dry cough. Hypotension (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is less common than a dry cough. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is another side effect of ACE inhibitors, but it is not the most commonly associated one. Headache (choice D) is not a common side effect of enalapril compared to a dry cough. Therefore, the most commonly associated side effect with enalapril is a dry cough.

2. The client is being taught about the use of warfarin. What is the most important dietary instruction?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Increase the intake of vitamin K-rich foods.
• C. Avoid foods high in protein.
• D. Increase the intake of foods high in calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is a medication that works by decreasing the activity of vitamin K in the body to prevent blood clotting. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K like green leafy vegetables can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing the intake of vitamin K-rich foods would counteract the effects of warfarin. Avoiding foods high in protein or increasing the intake of foods high in calcium are not specifically related to the use of warfarin.

3. The client on enoxaparin (Lovenox) is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Administer the enoxaparin as scheduled.
• C. Administer vitamin K before the surgery.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR and proceed with surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider. Enoxaparin, being an anticoagulant, should be held before surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. It is crucial to inform the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering enoxaparin before surgery can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not typically indicated in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring the client's INR and proceeding with surgery without addressing the enoxaparin can lead to significant bleeding complications.

4. Which term refers to the contraction phase of the heart when blood is ejected from the chambers?

• A. Systole
• B. Diastole
• C. Contractility
• D. Afterload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, systole. Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers. During diastole (choice B), the heart relaxes and fills with blood, contrasting with systole. Contractility (choice C) refers to the ability of the heart to contract effectively. Afterload (choice D) is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole.

5. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

Similar Questions