Nursing Elites

1. Reducing the amount of trans fat in the diet is an effective method of decreasing the risk of CHD. Which food is most likely a source of trans fat?

• A. hot dogs
• B. whole milk
• C. fatty fish
• D. potato chips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: potato chips. Potato chips, especially when fried in hydrogenated oils, are a common source of trans fats, which are linked to an increased risk of coronary heart disease (CHD). Hot dogs (choice A) can also contain trans fats if made with processed meats and added fats. Whole milk (choice B) and fatty fish (choice C) do not typically contain trans fats, making them less likely sources compared to potato chips.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should explain that which of the following sweeteners will add calories to the client's carbohydrate count?

• A. Sorbitol
• B. Sucralose
• C. Aspartame
• D. Acesulfame potassium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sorbitol is a sweetener that will add calories to the client's carbohydrate count. It is a sugar alcohol that provides about 2.6 calories per gram. Sucralose, aspartame, and acesulfame potassium are all non-nutritive sweeteners that do not contribute significant calories to the diet. Sucralose is about 600 times sweeter than sucrose but does not add calories. Aspartame is a low-calorie sweetener that is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose, and acesulfame potassium is a calorie-free sweetener.

3. A client who is in her second trimester of pregnancy should increase her caloric intake by how many calories during this trimester?

• A. 110 cal/day
• B. 225 cal/day
• C. 340 cal/day
• D. 450 cal/day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the second trimester of pregnancy, it is recommended that a client increases their caloric intake by around 340 calories per day to support the growing needs of both the mother and the developing fetus. This additional intake helps ensure the proper nutrition and energy levels required during this crucial stage of pregnancy. Option A (110 cal/day) is too low to meet the increased demands. Option B (225 cal/day) is also below the recommended amount. Option D (450 cal/day) is higher than necessary and could lead to excessive weight gain, which is not ideal during pregnancy.

4. Surgery schedules are communicated to the OR usually a day prior to the procedure by the nurse of the floor or ward where the patient is confined. For orthopedic cases, what department is usually informed to be present in the OR?

• A. Rehabilitation department
• B. Laboratory department
• C. Maintenance department
• D. Radiology department

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

5. A guideline that is utilized in determining priorities is to assess the status of the following, EXCEPT:

• A. perfusion
• B. locomotion
• C. respiration
• D. mentation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When determining priorities in patient care, assessing perfusion, respiration, and locomotion are crucial. However, assessing mentation is also important but not typically included in the ABCs of emergency care. Monitoring mentation is essential for neurological assessment and detecting changes in mental status, but it is not part of the immediate priorities in life-threatening situations.

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