ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test
1. After bronchoscopy, the nurse's priority is to check which of the following before feeding?
- A. Gag reflex
- B. Wearing off of anesthesia
- C. Swallowing reflex
- D. Peristalsis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a bronchoscopy procedure, the nurse's priority is to check the patient's gag reflex before allowing them to eat to prevent aspiration. The gag reflex helps protect the airway by triggering a cough or gag response if something touches the back of the throat. This is crucial to ensure that the patient can protect their airway and prevent food or fluids from entering the lungs, especially when the throat may be sensitive or compromised post-bronchoscopy. Checking for the wearing off of anesthesia, swallowing reflex, or peristalsis are important assessments but not the immediate priority before feeding in this context.
2. Each of the following accurately describes aspects of the dietary reference intakes (DRIs) published by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM) except one. Which one is the exception?
- A. The DRIs replace the older recommended daily allowances
- B. Current DRIs attempt to estimate required nutrients to improve long-term health
- C. DRIs specifically address individuals whose requirements are affected by a disease state
- D. The DRIs attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. DRIs are intended for the general population and do not specifically address disease states, which are managed with different clinical guidelines. Choice A is correct as DRIs have replaced the older recommended daily allowances. Choice B is correct as current DRIs aim to estimate the required nutrients for long-term health. Choice D is correct as DRIs also attempt to establish maximum safe levels of tolerance for nutrients.
3. Diego is undergoing blood transfusion of the first unit. The earliest signs of transfusion reactions are:
- A. Oliguria and jaundice
- B. Urticaria and wheezing
- C. Headache, chills, & fever
- D. Hypertension and flushing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patient safety and efficacy of care depend on actions rooted in established nursing protocols that consider both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.
4. When assessing for criteria that signify malnutrition risk, which element would most likely be included as part of the functional assessment data?
- A. severity of illness
- B. presence of pressure sores
- C. localized edema
- D. generalized weakness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Generalized weakness is a key indicator of malnutrition and is often assessed as part of functional status, reflecting muscle wasting and reduced physical function. The other choices, such as severity of illness, presence of pressure sores, and localized edema, are important factors to consider in a clinical assessment but are not primarily indicative of malnutrition risk. Generalized weakness directly relates to the functional impact of malnutrition on physical performance.
5. When is Prevident indicated?
- A. High caries risk
- B. Crown and bridge work
- C. Orthodontic decalcification
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prevident is indicated for all the situations listed in the choices. It is recommended for patients with a high risk of caries to reduce the risk of tooth decay. It is also used in dental procedures like crown and bridge work to strengthen enamel and prevent cavities. Furthermore, it is utilized for orthodontic decalcification to aid in remineralizing the tooth structure and prevent further damage. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' While choices A, B, and C are individually correct, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate as it encompasses all the possible indications for Prevident.
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