Nursing Elites

1. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

2. Which of the following best defines the role of a nurse practitioner (NP)?

• A. Provide direct patient care under the supervision of a physician
• B. Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently
• C. Assist with administrative tasks in a healthcare setting
• D. Specialize in a specific area of nursing practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Diagnose and treat medical conditions independently.' Nurse practitioners (NPs) are advanced practice registered nurses who are qualified to diagnose and treat medical conditions without direct supervision from a physician. Choice A is incorrect because NPs have the autonomy to provide care independently. Choice C is incorrect as NPs focus on clinical care rather than administrative tasks. Choice D is incorrect as specializing in a specific area of nursing practice refers to a different aspect of advanced nursing roles, such as becoming a clinical nurse specialist.

3. Which of the following scenarios would be an example of shared governance on a nursing unit?

• A. Staff nurses delegate activities to CNAs.
• B. Procedure manuals are written by a committee of nurse managers.
• C. Staff nurses and CNAs make their own schedules.
• D. A unit manager seeks advice from her supervisor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Shared governance in a nursing unit involves staff nurses and CNAs having autonomy and decision-making power in aspects like scheduling, which is reflected in them making their own schedules. This scenario aligns with the philosophy of shared governance where nursing practice is best determined by nurses. Choices A, B, and D do not exemplify shared governance as they involve hierarchical delegation, managerial decision-making, and seeking advice from superiors rather than autonomous decision-making by frontline staff.

4. A ___________ manager supervises a number of first-level managers, usually within related specialties.

• A. self-directed
• B. first-level
• C. middle-level
• D. self-motivated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A middle-level manager is responsible for overseeing a group of first-level managers who handle day-to-day operations within their respective specialties. Middle-level managers play a crucial role in coordinating and aligning the efforts of multiple first-level managers to achieve organizational goals. They act as a bridge between top management and frontline employees, ensuring that strategies are effectively implemented at the operational level. Choice A, 'self-directed,' refers to an individual's ability to manage their own work without direct supervision and does not specifically relate to supervising other managers. Choice B, 'first-level,' describes the managers being supervised, not the position responsible for overseeing them. Choice D, 'self-motivated,' pertains to an individual's drive and determination, which is not directly related to the hierarchical level of management being discussed.

5. Which of the following is a key component of patient-centered care?

• A. Provider-centered decision making
• B. Timely discharge
• C. Respect for patient preferences
• D. Focusing on clinical outcomes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respect for patient preferences. Patient-centered care focuses on involving patients in their care decisions and respecting their preferences. Choice A, provider-centered decision making, goes against the concept of patient-centered care as it prioritizes the provider over the patient. Timely discharge, choice B, is important but not a defining component of patient-centered care. Focusing on clinical outcomes, choice D, is essential in healthcare but does not solely represent patient-centered care, which is more about personalized care and involving patients in decision-making.

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