one reason to give an applicant a comprehensive medical exam is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

2. Selecting a person/unit to negotiate on the group's behalf is known as:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, representation election. Representation election is the process where individuals within a group vote to select a person or unit to represent and negotiate on their behalf. Options A and B are incorrect because they refer to the broader concepts of labor negotiations and bargaining, not specifically the process of selecting a representative. Option C, establishing a union, is also incorrect as it refers to the formation of a labor union rather than the act of choosing a representative for bargaining.

3. When a client with a terminal diagnosis asks about advance directives, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct response as it demonstrates active listening and empathy by engaging the client in a discussion about their concerns regarding advance directives. It also recognizes the importance of involving the client's partner in such discussions, promoting shared decision-making and support. Choices B and C lack the personalized approach needed in this situation and do not address the client's immediate request for information. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the client's expressed need to discuss advance directives and focuses solely on their current feelings, delaying a crucial conversation.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When applying wrist restraints, it is crucial to secure the restraint ties to the bed's side rails to ensure the client's safety and prevent injury. Padding the client's wrists (Choice A) is not a standard practice and may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints. Evaluating the client's circulation (Choice B) is important but should be done more frequently than every 8 hours to ensure prompt detection of any circulation issues. Removing the restraints every 4 hours (Choice D) is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or agitation in the client.

5. An unresponsive patient with type 2 diabetes is brought to the emergency department and diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). The nurse will anticipate the need to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS), severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances are common. To address these issues, the priority intervention is to insert a large-bore IV catheter for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte replacement. Giving a bolus of 50% dextrose would worsen the hyperglycemia. Initiating oxygen via nasal cannula may be beneficial for respiratory support but is not the priority in this scenario. Administering glargine (Lantus) insulin is not the initial treatment for HHS as it does not address the underlying severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

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