one reason to give an applicant a comprehensive medical exam is
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ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

2. Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When calculating Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.

3. Monitoring the number of times a medication is given utilizing the 'five rights' is an example of which phase of the Six Sigma program?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the Six Sigma program, the 'Measure' phase focuses on monitoring and measuring processes to ensure they meet the desired standards. This includes tracking the number of times a medication is given correctly using the 'five rights' principle. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, 'Management,' does not specifically relate to monitoring processes or data collection, so it is not the correct answer. Choice C, 'Quantitative,' refers to the use of numerical data in decision-making, which is a broader concept and not specific to monitoring processes within the Six Sigma framework. Choice D, 'Goal,' is too general and does not capture the specific phase of Six Sigma that involves monitoring and measuring processes.

4. Which of the following are significant benefits to an organization that is considering adoption of a practice partnership model? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Continuity of care is facilitated. One of the significant benefits of a practice partnership model is that it facilitates continuity of care, which can lead to better outcomes for clients. Choice A is incorrect as clients would not express reduced satisfaction with this model; in fact, greater client satisfaction is a benefit. Choice B is incorrect because the cost-effectiveness of the model is not specified or guaranteed. Choice D is incorrect as the acceptance of leadership is not explicitly mentioned as a significant benefit of this model.

5. Under which category does a violation of the nurse practice act fall?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A violation of the nurse practice act falls under the category of a felony. Felony offenses are the most serious and can include acts like homicide and violations of professional practice regulations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because violations of the nurse practice act are considered more severe than misdemeanors, torts, or related to juvenile cases.

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