Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?

• A. Discontinue current medications
• B. Write new prescriptions
• C. Compare prescriptions with the client’s medications
• D. Ask the client to decide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action in the medication reconciliation process is to compare prescriptions with the client’s medications. This step ensures that there are no conflicting medications prescribed, reducing the risk of adverse drug interactions. Discontinuing current medications or writing new prescriptions without comparing them can lead to errors and potential harm. Asking the client to decide is not appropriate in this context as it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure medication safety based on professional judgment and knowledge.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with pneumonia. Which finding is most concerning?

• A. Fever of 101°F.
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg.
• C. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute.
• D. Crackles heard in the lung bases.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles heard in the lung bases are most concerning in a patient with pneumonia as they suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating possible severe infection or respiratory distress. Prompt intervention is required to prevent further complications.\n\nChoice A, fever of 101°F, is common in infections like pneumonia but may not be as immediately concerning as crackles indicating fluid in the lungs.\n\nChoice B, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, is within normal limits and not directly indicative of pneumonia severity.\n\nChoice C, a heart rate of 95 beats per minute, is slightly elevated but not as critical as crackles suggesting fluid in the lungs.

3. A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?

• A. A client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day
• B. A client whose discharge was cancelled the prior day because they developed respiratory distress
• C. A client who is 6 hr postoperative following an open cholecystectomy
• D. A client who is prescribed gastric lavage treatments to treat acute aspirin toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.

4. Which intervention is most effective in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient?

• A. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids.
• B. Encourage early ambulation and leg exercises.
• C. Administer anticoagulants as prescribed.
• D. Apply compression stockings to the patient's legs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a postoperative patient is to encourage early ambulation and leg exercises. Early ambulation helps promote circulation, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of blood clot formation. Encouraging the patient to drink plenty of fluids (choice A) is important for overall health but is not the most effective intervention for preventing DVT. Administering anticoagulants (choice C) is a valuable intervention in some cases, but it may not be suitable for all postoperative patients. Applying compression stockings (choice D) can help prevent DVT but is generally not as effective as early ambulation and leg exercises in postoperative patients.

5. Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?

• A. Identifying early signs of mental illness
• B. Preventing the occurrence of mental health problems
• C. Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration
• D. Providing a safe environment to prevent harm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.

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