nurse is giving a change of shift report about a client he admitted earlier that day who has pneumonia which of the following pieces of information is
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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A healthcare professional is giving a change-of-shift report about a client admitted earlier that day with pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the healthcare professional to provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breath sounds.' When providing a change-of-shift report for a client with pneumonia, the priority information to communicate is the assessment of breath sounds. Monitoring breath sounds is crucial in assessing respiratory status and the effectiveness of treatments in pneumonia. Option A, recent chest x-ray results, may be important but does not provide real-time information on the client's current status. Option B, medication history, is relevant but not as immediate as assessing breath sounds. Option D, lab results, can provide valuable information but may not be as urgent as monitoring the client's respiratory status through breath sounds.

2. A client with a new prescription for sumatriptan tablets to treat migraine headaches should report which of the following symptoms to the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling of the eyelids is a side effect of sumatriptan tablets that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Chewing the tablet well before swallowing is not necessary for sumatriptan tablets. Repeating the dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache is incorrect as this medication should not be repeated within 24 hours. Taking sumatriptan daily for headache prevention is also incorrect as it is used for acute treatment, not prevention.

3. A nurse is assessing a client's wound dressing and observes a watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, serosanguineous. Serosanguineous drainage is thin, watery, and pale red, indicating a mixture of serous fluid and blood. Choice A (purulent) refers to thick, yellow or green drainage indicating infection. Choice B (serous) is thin, clear drainage. Choice C (sanguineous) is bright red, indicating fresh bleeding.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.

5. A nurse is preparing to perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to remain still once the gel pads are attached is crucial to obtaining accurate ECG readings. Choice B is incorrect as electrodes are typically placed on the chest, not the breast. Choice C is incorrect because the client should lie flat during an ECG, not sit up. Choice D is incorrect because the client should breathe normally, rather than holding their breath, throughout the procedure.

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