ATI RN
ATI Proctored Nutrition Exam 2019
1. Mr. CKK is unconscious and was brought to the E.R. Who among the following can give consent for CKK's operation?
- A. Doctor
- B. Nurse
- C. Next of Kin
- D. The Patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, when a patient is unconscious and unable to provide consent, the responsibility usually falls on the physician to make decisions regarding the patient's treatment, including obtaining consent for an operation. While nurses play a crucial role in patient care, they typically do not have the authority to provide consent for a major procedure. The next of kin may be consulted for input, but the ultimate decision-making authority lies with the physician. The patient, being unconscious, is unable to provide consent in this situation.
2. Bacterial growth and plaque formation are enhanced by a diet with frequent intake of retentive carbohydrates. Gingivitis is an irreversible change in the interdental papillary tissues.
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The first statement is true; retentive carbohydrates promote bacterial growth and plaque formation. However, the second statement is false; gingivitis is not irreversible and is often reversible with proper care. Gingivitis is the inflammation of the gums due to plaque buildup and poor oral hygiene. With good oral hygiene practices and professional dental care, gingivitis can be reversed. The other choices are incorrect because gingivitis is not irreversible, making statement two false.
3. What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction?
- A. antiemetic
- B. anticoagulant
- C. anticonvulsant
- D. antibiotic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Anticoagulants are the most suitable choice for a patient following a myocardial infarction. These medications are essential in preventing further blood clots from forming in the arteries, reducing the risk of complications such as strokes or recurrent heart attacks. Antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not directly related to myocardial infarction. Anticonvulsants are used to manage seizures, not typically indicated after a heart attack. Antibiotics are prescribed to treat bacterial infections, not routinely given after a myocardial infarction.
4. A nurse is teaching about nutrition to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase phosphorus intake
- B. Limit calcium intake
- C. Limit protein intake
- D. Increase potassium intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit protein intake. Excessive protein consumption can strain the kidneys as they work to eliminate waste products from protein metabolism. This can worsen kidney function in individuals with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, limiting protein intake is crucial in managing this condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing phosphorus intake can be harmful in kidney disease as it can lead to mineral imbalances. Limiting calcium intake is not typically necessary unless the client has specific complications. Increasing potassium intake may also be inappropriate as potassium levels can be affected in kidney disease.
5. What is a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Night blindness
- C. Bone pain
- D. Rashes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bone pain. Vitamin D deficiency often leads to bone pain and weakness as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health by aiding in the absorption of calcium. Hair loss (choice A) is not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency. Night blindness (choice B) is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency. Rashes (choice D) are not a common symptom of vitamin D deficiency.
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