Nursing Elites

1. Michael, a 42 y.o. man is admitted to the med-surg floor with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. His BP is 136/76, pulse 96, Resps 22 and temp 101. His past history includes hyperlipidemia and alcohol abuse. The doctor prescribes an NG tube. Before inserting the tube, you explain the purpose to patient. Which of the following is a most accurate explanation?

• A. It empties the stomach of fluids and gas.
• B. It prevents spasms at the sphincter of Oddi.
• C. It prevents air from forming in the small intestine and large intestine.
• D. It removes bile from the gallbladder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explain to the patient that the NG tube is used to empty the stomach of fluids and gas, which helps relieve symptoms of acute pancreatitis.

2. The nurse assesses the client's understanding of the relationship between body position and gastroesophageal reflux. Which response would indicate that the client understands measures to avoid problems with reflux while sleeping?

• A. I can elevate the foot of the bed 4 to 6 inches.
• B. I can sleep on my stomach with my head turned to the left.
• C. I can sleep on my back without a pillow under my head.
• D. I can elevate the head of the bed 4 to 6 inches.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sleeping with the head of the bed elevated encourages movement of food through the esophagus by gravity. By fostering esophageal acid clearance, gravity helps keep the acidic pepsin and alkaline biliary secretions from contacting the esophagus. Elevating the foot of the bed does not affect clearance of esophageal acid. Sleeping on the stomach with the head turned to the left will not decrease reflux incidence. Sleeping flat without a pillow under the head does not enhance clearance.

3. Kevin has a history of peptic ulcer disease and vomits coffee-ground emesis. What does this indicate?

• A. He has fresh, active upper GI bleeding.
• B. He needs immediate saline gastric lavage.
• C. His gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.
• D. He needs a transfusion of packed RBC’s.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coffee-ground emesis indicates that the gastric bleeding occurred 2 hours earlier.

4. A client had an abdominal perineal resection with a colostomy 4 days ago and is ready for discharge. Which of the following would be an appropriate expected outcome at this point?

• A. The client maintains a high-fiber diet.
• B. The client discusses concerns about his sexual functioning.
• C. The client maintains bedrest.
• D. The client limits fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients often have concerns about their sexuality after a fecal diversion. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss any questions about sexual functioning. The client will not need to maintain a high-fiber diet but will be encouraged to avoid any foods that cause odor and flatulence. The client should be able to ambulate and sit out of bed for several hours at a time at this point. Fluid intake will be encouraged, not restricted.

5. Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?

• A. A fecalith
• B. Bowel kinking
• C. Internal bowel occlusion
• D. Abdominal bowel swelling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fecalith is a hardened stool that can block the appendix, leading to inflammation and infection, which is the most common cause of appendicitis.

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