Nursing Elites

1. Michael, a 42 y.o. man is admitted to the med-surg floor with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. His BP is 136/76, pulse 96, Resps 22 and temp 101. His past history includes hyperlipidemia and alcohol abuse. The doctor prescribes an NG tube. Before inserting the tube, you explain the purpose to patient. Which of the following is a most accurate explanation?

• A. It empties the stomach of fluids and gas.
• B. It prevents spasms at the sphincter of Oddi.
• C. It prevents air from forming in the small intestine and large intestine.
• D. It removes bile from the gallbladder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explain to the patient that the NG tube is used to empty the stomach of fluids and gas, which helps relieve symptoms of acute pancreatitis.

2. You have a patient with achalasia (incomplete muscle relaxation of the GI tract, especially sphincter muscles). Which medications do you anticipate to administer?

• A. Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)
• B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Propanolol (Inderal)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) is a medication used to relax the muscles of the GI tract in patients with achalasia.

3. Your patient with peritonitis is NPO and complaining of thirst. What is your priority?

• A. Increase the I.V. infusion rate.
• B. Use diversion activities.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Give ice chips every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing frequent mouth care is the priority for a patient with peritonitis who is NPO and complaining of thirst.

4. Janice is waiting for discharge instructions after her herniorrhaphy. Which of the following instructions do you include?

• A. Eat a low-fiber diet.
• B. Resume heavy lifting in 2 weeks.
• C. Lose weight, if obese.
• D. Resume sexual activity once discomfort is gone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Advise the patient to lose weight if obese to reduce the risk of complications after herniorrhaphy.

5. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a hallmark sign of this disorder?

• A. Severe abdominal pain relieved by vomiting
• B. Severe abdominal pain that is unrelieved by vomiting
• C. Hypothermia
• D. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis is severe abdominal pain that is not relieved by vomiting. Nausea and vomiting are common presenting symptoms, with vomitus typically consisting of gastric and duodenal contents. Hypothermia is not a hallmark sign of acute pancreatitis. Fever, typically less than 38 degrees centigrade, is more common. Epigastric pain radiating to the neck area is not a characteristic sign of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.

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