Nursing Elites

1. A client had an abdominal perineal resection with a colostomy 4 days ago and is ready for discharge. Which of the following would be an appropriate expected outcome at this point?

• A. The client maintains a high-fiber diet.
• B. The client discusses concerns about his sexual functioning.
• C. The client maintains bedrest.
• D. The client limits fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients often have concerns about their sexuality after a fecal diversion. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss any questions about sexual functioning. The client will not need to maintain a high-fiber diet but will be encouraged to avoid any foods that cause odor and flatulence. The client should be able to ambulate and sit out of bed for several hours at a time at this point. Fluid intake will be encouraged, not restricted.

2. The nurse aspirates 40 mL of undigested formula from the client’s nasogastric tube. Before administering an intermittent tube feeding, the nurse understands that the 40 mL of gastric aspirate should be

• A. Discarded properly and recorded as output on the client’s intake and output record.
• B. Poured into the nasogastric tube through a syringe with the plunger removed.
• C. Mixed with the formula and poured into the nasogastric tube through a syringe with the plunger removed.
• D. Diluted with water and injected into the nasogastric tube by putting pressure on the plunger.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After checking the residual feeding contents, the gastric contents are reinstalled into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and pouring the gastric contents into the syringe and through the nasogastric tube. Gastric contents should be reinstalled to maintain the client’s electrolyte balance. The gastric contents should be poured into the nasogastric tube through a syringe without a plunger and not injected by putting pressure on the plunger. Gastric contents do not need to be mixed with water or should the contents be discarded.

3. The most important pathophysiologic factor contributing to the formation of esophageal varices is:

• A. Decreased prothrombin formation
• B. Decreased albumin formation by the liver
• C. Portal hypertension
• D. Increased central venous pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Portal hypertension is the most important pathophysiologic factor contributing to the formation of esophageal varices.

4. An intubated patient is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a Salem sump tube at a rate of 60ml/hr. Gastric residuals have been 30-40ml when monitored Q4H. You check the gastric residual and aspirate 220ml. What is your first response to this finding?

• A. Notify the doctor immediately.
• B. Stop the feeding, and clamp the NG tube.
• C. Discard the 220ml, and clamp the NG tube.
• D. Give a prescribed GI stimulant such as metoclopramide (Reglan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If gastric residuals are high during continuous enteral feedings, the first response is to stop the feeding and clamp the NG tube.

5. A client with gastric cancer can expect to have surgery for resection. Which of the following should be the nursing management priority for the preoperative client with gastric cancer?

• A. Discharge planning
• B. Correction of nutritional deficits
• C. Prevention of DVT
• D. Instruction regarding radiation treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority for preoperative management of a client with gastric cancer is the correction of nutritional deficits.

Similar Questions