Nursing Elites

1. A client had an abdominal perineal resection with a colostomy 4 days ago and is ready for discharge. Which of the following would be an appropriate expected outcome at this point?

• A. The client maintains a high-fiber diet.
• B. The client discusses concerns about his sexual functioning.
• C. The client maintains bedrest.
• D. The client limits fluid intake to 1000 ml/day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients often have concerns about their sexuality after a fecal diversion. The nurse should encourage the client to discuss any questions about sexual functioning. The client will not need to maintain a high-fiber diet but will be encouraged to avoid any foods that cause odor and flatulence. The client should be able to ambulate and sit out of bed for several hours at a time at this point. Fluid intake will be encouraged, not restricted.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with acute viral hepatitis. Which of the following signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to note based on this diagnosis?

• A. Spider angiomas
• B. Fatigue
• C. Pale urine
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Common signs of acute viral hepatitis include weight loss, dark urine, and fatigue. The client is anorexic, possibly from a toxin produced by the diseased liver, and finds food distasteful. The urine darkens because of excess bilirubin being excreted by the kidneys. Fatigue occurs during all phases of hepatitis.

3. A client is taking an antacid for treatment of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following statements best indicates that the client understands how to correctly take the antacid?

• A. I should take my antacid before I take my other medications.
• B. I need to decrease my intake of fluids so that I don’t dilute the effects of my antacid.
• C. My antacid will be most effective if I take it whenever I experience stomach pains.
• D. It is best for me to take my antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: It is best for the client to take the antacid 1 to 3 hours after meals to ensure effectiveness.

4. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be performed annually over age 50 to screen for colon cancer?

• A. Abdominal CT scan
• B. Abdominal x-ray
• C. Colonoscopy
• D. Fecal occult blood test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fecal occult blood test should be performed annually for individuals over age 50 to screen for colon cancer.

5. A client has been diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the stomach and is scheduled to undergo a subtotal gastrectomy (Billroth II procedure). During pre-operative teaching, the nurse is reinforcing information about the procedure. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

• A. The procedure will result in enlargement of the pyloric sphincter
• B. The procedure will result in anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum
• C. The procedure will result in removal of the duodenum
• D. The procedure will result in repositioning of the vagus nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Billroth II procedure involves anastomosis of the gastric stump to the jejunum.

Similar Questions