Nursing Elites

1. Melena, the passage of black, tarry stools, suggests bleeding from which source?

• A. The perianal or rectal area
• B. The upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract
• C. The lower GI tract
• D. Hemorrhoids or anal fissures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Melena indicates bleeding from the upper GI tract. The black, tarry appearance of the stool results from the partial digestion of blood as it passes through the intestines, typically originating from sources like the stomach or duodenum. Lower GI bleeding usually presents as bright red blood in the stool, originating from sources like the colon or rectum. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because melena specifically points to upper GI bleeding rather than issues in the perianal/rectal area, lower GI tract, or hemorrhoids/anal fissures.

2. Physiologically, the child compensates for fluid volume losses by which mechanism?

• A. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion
• B. Hemoconcentration to reduce cardiac workload
• C. Fluid shift from interstitial space to intravascular space
• D. Vasodilation of peripheral arterioles to increase perfusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In response to dehydration, the body compensates by shifting fluids from the interstitial spaces to the intravascular space to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Hemoconcentration and vasoconstriction are other compensatory mechanisms but are less immediate.

3. What is the appropriate site to administer an intramuscular (IM) vaccine to a newborn?

• A. The dorsal gluteal muscle
• B. The vastus lateralis muscle
• C. The ventral gluteal muscle
• D. The biceps muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct site to administer an intramuscular (IM) vaccine to a newborn is the vastus lateralis muscle. For newborns, the vastus lateralis is preferred over the dorsogluteal site because the dorsogluteal site has been associated with low antibody seroconversion rates, indicating a reduced immune response. The vastus lateralis is also recommended for IM injections in newborns, while the deltoid muscle is preferred for older infants and children. The ventral gluteal muscle and the biceps muscle are not appropriate sites for IM injections. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.

4. A child diagnosed with aplastic anemia is admitted to the hospital. The parents ask the nurse what aplastic anemia is. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. Aplastic anemia causes a proliferation of white blood cells.
• B. Aplastic anemia is characterized by abnormally shaped red blood cells.
• C. Aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells.
• D. Aplastic anemia is a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, leading to pancytopenia. This can result in fatigue, infections, and bleeding tendencies. It is not characterized by abnormal red blood cell shapes, but rather by a reduction in the production of blood cells. Therefore, the accurate response is that aplastic anemia is caused by the bone marrow producing inadequate cells. Choices A and B are incorrect as aplastic anemia does not cause a proliferation of white blood cells or involve abnormally shaped red blood cells. Choice D is incorrect as aplastic anemia is not typically a disorder that occurs after a viral illness.

5. In what condition should the nurse be alert for altered fluid requirements in children? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Oliguric renal failure
• B. Increased intracranial pressure
• C. Mechanical ventilation
• D. All above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conditions like oliguric renal failure, increased intracranial pressure, and mechanical ventilation significantly alter fluid requirements in children. These conditions either restrict fluid output or require careful fluid management to avoid worsening the condition.

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