Nursing Elites

1. Mario listens to Richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper lobes of the lungs. The appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical segments of the lungs when Mario does percussion would be:

• A. Client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on Trendelenburg position
• B. Client seated upright in bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position then flat on his back and on his
• C. Client lying flat on his back and then flat on his abdomen
• D. Client lying on his right then left side on Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper patient positioning is essential for maximizing lung expansion and promoting the drainage of secretions. Postural drainage techniques rely on gravity to help clear different lung segments, which is critical in preventing complications such as atelectasis or pneumonia in immobilized patients.

2. What does a QRS Complex represent in an ECG reading?

• A. Atrial depolarization
• B. Ventricular repolarization
• C. Ventricular depolarization
• D. End of ventricular depolarization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The QRS Complex in an ECG reading represents ventricular depolarization, which is the process of the heart's ventricles preparing to contract by changing the electrical charge in the cell, hence choice 'C' is the correct answer. Choice 'A' is incorrect because atrial depolarization is represented by the P wave in an ECG reading, not the QRS Complex. Choice 'B' is incorrect as ventricular repolarization is depicted by the T wave, not the QRS Complex. Finally, choice 'D' is also incorrect because the QRS Complex is not the end of ventricular depolarization, but the process itself.

3. What symptoms would most likely be associated with a transient ischemic attack?

• A. confusion and difficulty speaking
• B. headache and blurred vision
• C. chest pain and pressure
• D. claudication and peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: confusion and difficulty speaking. These symptoms are commonly associated with a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain. Choice B, headache and blurred vision, are more indicative of other conditions such as migraines or eye problems. Choice C, chest pain and pressure, are more characteristic of cardiac issues like a heart attack. Choice D, claudication and peripheral edema, are typical of peripheral arterial disease and not typically seen in TIAs.

4. What chronic disease has been associated with increased risks of dental problems?

• A. diabetes mellitus
• B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
• C. Addison's disease
• D. asthma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diabetes mellitus is associated with an increased risk of dental problems, including gum disease and tooth loss, due to high blood sugar levels. While chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), Addison's disease, and asthma may have oral health implications, diabetes mellitus is specifically known for its strong association with dental issues.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing fluid volume excess?

• A. BUN 8 mg/dL
• B. Hgb 15 g/dL
• C. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN level of 8 mg/dL indicates fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) levels can be low in fluid overload due to hemodilution, a common occurrence in heart failure. High levels of BUN usually indicate dehydration or impaired renal function, which are not the case in fluid volume excess. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate fluid volume excess.

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