in which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Practice Questions

1. In which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur?

A. A 50-year-old woman who is a bodybuilder
B. A 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese
C. A 10-year-old child who is thin
D. A 30-year-old with multiple sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Morbid obesity increases the risk of dehydration due to the larger body surface area and potential for greater insensible losses. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to experience dehydration compared to a morbidly obese individual.

2. After experiencing several months of worsening nocturia, a patient has been assessed for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and has begun drug treatment. In addition to nocturia, what other sign or symptom is most likely to accompany BPH?

A. Hematuria
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Urinary frequency
D. Flank pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hematuria. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is a common sign associated with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). It can occur due to irritation or damage to the prostate tissue. While urinary frequency and erectile dysfunction can also be seen in BPH patients, hematuria is more specifically linked to prostate issues. Flank pain is not typically a direct symptom of BPH.

3. A 30-year-old male has been brought to the emergency department by his wife because of a severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals a high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). Which organism is the most likely cause of these findings?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Listeria monocytogenes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis findings of high protein count, low glucose, and numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) are classic for bacterial meningitis. Among the choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely cause in this case. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults, especially presenting with symptoms such as severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Neisseria meningitidis is another common cause of bacterial meningitis but is more frequently associated with a different CSF profile. Escherichia coli is a common cause of neonatal meningitis, not typically seen in a 30-year-old male. Listeria monocytogenes is more commonly associated with meningitis in immunocompromised individuals and neonates, and typically presents differently in CSF analysis.

4. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

5. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

A. They improve treatment adherence.
B. They reduce the duration of illness.
C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
D. They prevent opportunistic infections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.