Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with bipolar disorder, which symptom would indicate a manic episode?

• A. Excessive sleeping
• B. Low self-esteem
• C. Decreased need for sleep
• D. Anhedonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased need for sleep. A decreased need for sleep is a hallmark symptom of a manic episode in bipolar disorder. During manic episodes, individuals may experience significantly reduced sleep without feeling tired, which can lead to increased energy levels, impulsivity, and other manic symptoms. Excessive sleeping (choice A) is more indicative of depression rather than mania. Low self-esteem (choice B) and anhedonia (choice D) are also more commonly associated with depressive episodes rather than manic episodes in bipolar disorder.

2. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

3. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

4. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

5. While assessing a distraught female high school student who is overly concerned because her parents can't afford horseback riding lessons, how should the nurse interpret the student's reaction to her perceived problem?

• A. The problem is endangering her well-being.
• B. The problem is personally relevant to her.
• C. The problem is based on immaturity.
• D. The problem is exceeding her capacity to cope.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the student being overly concerned about not being able to afford horseback riding lessons indicates that the problem is personally relevant to her. Psychological stressors related to self-esteem and self-image are influenced by how an individual perceives a situation or event. Adolescents, in particular, place significance on self-image and feeling entitled to experiences that other adolescents have, which can lead to distress when such desires are not met. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication that the student's physical well-being is at risk. Choice C is incorrect as it simplifies the issue by attributing it solely to immaturity. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the problem is beyond the student's coping abilities.

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