Nursing Elites

1. Which statement about the concept of neuroses is most accurate?

• A. An individual experiencing neurosis is unaware of the distress they are experiencing.
• B. An individual experiencing neurosis feels helpless to change their situation.
• C. An individual experiencing neurosis is aware of psychological causes of their behavior.
• D. An individual experiencing neurosis has a loss of contact with reality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neurosis involves feelings of distress and anxiety, but individuals experiencing neurosis are usually aware of their distress and its causes. They may recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive and are generally in contact with reality. The accurate statement about neurosis is that an individual feels helpless to change their situation. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with neurosis are usually aware of their distress. Choice C is incorrect because while individuals may be aware of psychological causes, it is not the defining characteristic of neurosis. Choice D is incorrect because a loss of contact with reality is more characteristic of psychosis, not neurosis.

2. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss the voices.
• B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• C. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
• D. Distract the client from the voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations, providing reality-based feedback is a therapeutic intervention. This helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, aiding in reducing the impact of hallucinations. Encouraging the client to discuss the voices may validate the hallucinations, telling the client that the voices are not real dismisses their experience, and distracting the client may not address the underlying issue of the hallucinations.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Discourage the client from washing her hands
• D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

4. A client is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Allow the client to perform rituals initially
• B. Set limits on the time allowed for rituals
• C. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings
• D. Provide a structured schedule of activities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Interventions for a client with OCD should include allowing the client to perform rituals initially, setting limits on the time allowed for rituals, encouraging the client to verbalize feelings, and providing a structured schedule of activities. Allowing the client to perform rituals is an essential part of managing OCD and should not be restricted in the initial stages of care. Setting limits on the time for rituals helps prevent excessive engagement in them. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings promotes emotional expression and processing. Providing a structured schedule of activities helps establish routine and predictability, which can be beneficial for individuals with OCD.

5. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

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