ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?
- A. Position the patient in the supine position for long periods.
- B. Use pillows to support bony prominences.
- C. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
- D. Place the patient on an alternating pressure mattress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.
2. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with unstable blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Monitor the client every two hours.
- B. Continuously monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Wait for the healthcare provider to provide instructions.
- D. Ask the healthcare provider for specific instructions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a client with unstable blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs. This allows for immediate detection of any fluctuations in blood pressure and timely intervention if necessary. Choice A, monitoring every two hours, may not provide real-time information needed for prompt intervention. Choices C and D suggest waiting for instructions from the healthcare provider, which could cause a delay in addressing the unstable blood pressure, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs.
3. The nurse is preparing a care plan for a patient who is immobile. Which psychosocial aspect will the nurse assess for?
- A. Loss of weight
- B. Loss of bone mass
- C. Loss of hope
- D. Loss of strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is immobile, the nurse should assess for psychosocial aspects, including a loss of hope and increased risk of depression. While issues like weight loss (choice A), loss of bone mass (choice B), and loss of strength (choice D) can also occur due to immobility, the primary concern in this scenario is the patient's mental and emotional well-being, making 'Loss of hope' the correct answer.
4. What are the signs of infection that should be monitored in a postoperative patient?
- A. Fever and chills
- B. All of the above
- C. Increased pain or tenderness
- D. Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site.' These are specific signs of infection at the surgical site that a nurse should monitor for in a postoperative patient. While fever, chills, and increased pain can also indicate infection, the most direct signs are redness, swelling, and warmth at the surgical site. Therefore, 'D' is the best choice as it directly relates to the site of the surgery and is crucial to monitor for potential postoperative infections.
5. A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?
- A. Lemon sherbet
- B. Milkshake
- C. Vanilla ice cream
- D. Grape juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.
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