ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?
- A. Position the patient in the supine position for long periods.
- B. Use pillows to support bony prominences.
- C. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
- D. Place the patient on an alternating pressure mattress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.
2. A patient reflects a correct understanding about the relationship between the gate control theory of pain and the use of meditation to relieve pain?
- A. Meditation alters the chemical composition of pain neuroregulators, which closes the gate.
- B. Meditation stops the occurrence of pain stimuli.
- C. Meditation controls pain by blocking pain impulses from coming through the gate.
- D. Meditation will help me sleep through the pain because it opens the gate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to the gate control theory, meditation helps relieve pain by blocking pain impulses from coming through the gate in the central nervous system. Choice A is incorrect as meditation does not directly alter the chemical composition of pain neuroregulators. Choice B is incorrect because meditation does not stop the occurrence of pain stimuli. Choice D is incorrect as meditation does not open the gate but rather closes it to block pain impulses.
3. What is a key component of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure?
- A. Advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise
- B. Fluid restriction to prevent fluid overload
- C. Dietary recommendations, including a low-sodium diet
- D. Medication management, including diuretics and ACE inhibitors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The main components of a comprehensive discharge plan for a patient with heart failure include advising on appropriate physical activity and exercise to improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being. While fluid restriction and dietary recommendations are important aspects of heart failure management, advising on physical activity and exercise is crucial for improving cardiac function and quality of life post-discharge. Medication management is also essential but focusing on physical activity is particularly relevant for long-term management and preventing readmissions.
4. What are the clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure, and how do they differ from right-sided heart failure?
- A. Jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex
- B. Hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema
- C. Dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea
- D. Pulmonary congestion and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure include pulmonary symptoms such as dyspnea, cough, and orthopnea. However, left-sided heart failure can also manifest as jugular venous distention and hepatojugular reflex due to the backflow of blood into the pulmonary circulation. Right-sided heart failure is characterized by systemic symptoms like hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema. Choice B is incorrect as it presents manifestations of right-sided heart failure. Choice C includes symptoms of left-sided heart failure. Choice D describes pulmonary congestion, which is more specific to left-sided heart failure, but it does not encompass the full range of clinical manifestations for left-sided heart failure.
5. After a case manager completes a history and physical assessment for a client with COPD, which of the following actions should the case manager take next?
- A. Call the provider with a list of client concerns.
- B. Identify the client's current health needs.
- C. Compile a list of community resources for the client.
- D. Refer the client to a COPD support group.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After completing a history and physical assessment for a client with COPD, the next step for the case manager should be to call the provider with a list of client concerns. This is crucial as the provider needs to be informed about any issues or changes in the client's health status to ensure appropriate management. Identifying the client's current health needs, as mentioned in option B, is important but would typically follow after communicating the client's concerns to the provider. Compiling a list of community resources (option C) and referring the client to a COPD support group (option D) are also valuable actions but are not the immediate next steps after completing the assessment.
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