ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 A with NGN
1. How should a healthcare professional position a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers?
- A. Position the patient in the supine position for long periods.
- B. Use pillows to support bony prominences.
- C. Turn the patient every 4 hours.
- D. Place the patient on an alternating pressure mattress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correctly positioning a patient to reduce the risk of pressure ulcers involves using pillows to support bony prominences. This helps to relieve pressure from vulnerable areas and prevent the development of pressure ulcers. Choice A is incorrect because keeping a patient in the supine position for extended periods can increase the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as turning the patient every 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours, is recommended to prevent pressure ulcers. Choice D is not the best option mentioned for positioning a patient to reduce pressure ulcer risk; although alternating pressure mattresses can be beneficial, using pillows for support is a more direct and commonly used method.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter and a prescription for a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Wipe the area around the needleless port with sterile water
- B. Insert the syringe into the needleless port at a 60-degree angle
- C. Withdraw 3 to 5 ml of urine from the port
- D. Don sterile gloves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to withdraw 3 to 5 ml of urine from the port for an accurate culture and sensitivity test. Wiping the area around the needleless port with sterile water (Choice A) is not necessary when obtaining a urine specimen. Inserting the syringe into the needleless port at a 60-degree angle (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not align with the correct procedure for obtaining a urine specimen. Donning sterile gloves (Choice D) is a good practice but not the immediate action required for obtaining a urine specimen.
3. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. Which of the following interventions by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?
- A. Design interventions for a student's individual education plan (IEP).
- B. Teach students about healthy food choices.
- C. Perform first aid for minor injuries.
- D. Perform scoliosis screenings for students.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because teaching students about healthy food choices is a primary prevention strategy that aims to prevent future health issues by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice A, designing interventions for an individual education plan (IEP), is more related to addressing specific educational needs rather than preventing health issues. Choice C, performing first aid for minor injuries, is a form of secondary prevention aimed at reducing the impact of existing health problems. Choice D, performing scoliosis screenings for students, falls under secondary prevention by detecting health issues early rather than preventing them.
4. A nurse sees another nurse administering medication without using alcohol swabs. What is the first action the nurse should take?
- A. Ignore the situation to maintain a good working relationship.
- B. Report the behavior to the nurse manager.
- C. Ask the colleague to be more careful next time.
- D. Report the issue after speaking to other colleagues.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when witnessing unsafe medication administration practices, such as not using alcohol swabs, is to report the behavior to the nurse manager immediately. Patient safety is the top priority, and any actions that compromise it must be addressed promptly. Ignoring the situation (Choice A) is not appropriate as it puts patients at risk. Asking the colleague to be more careful (Choice C) may not be effective in ensuring immediate correction of the unsafe practice. Reporting the issue after speaking to other colleagues (Choice D) delays necessary action and may compromise patient safety further.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed enalapril. The provider should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Question: When a client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential. Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can lead to an increase in potassium levels in the blood. This adverse effect can be serious and potentially life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, hypokalemia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects. It's essential for healthcare providers to be vigilant in monitoring potassium levels when clients are on ACE inhibitors like enalapril.
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