ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- B. Hyoscyamine
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Phenazopyridine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.
2. A nurse is preparing to perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Remain still once the gel pads are attached
- B. I will be placing electrodes on your chest
- C. I will lower the head of your bed so you can sit up
- D. Breathe normally throughout the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to remain still once the gel pads are attached is crucial to obtaining accurate ECG readings. Choice B is incorrect as electrodes are typically placed on the chest, not the breast. Choice C is incorrect because the client should lie flat during an ECG, not sit up. Choice D is incorrect because the client should breathe normally, rather than holding their breath, throughout the procedure.
3. A nurse is caring for a child who is allergic to penicillin. The nurse should verify which of the following prescriptions with the provider?
- A. Amphotericin B
- B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
- C. Erythromycin
- D. Gentamicin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amoxicillin-clavulanate is related to penicillin, and a cross-sensitivity could occur, so the provider should be consulted.
4. When a patient refuses to remove their religious jewelry before surgery, what is the best response for the nurse preparing for the procedure?
- A. Proceed with the surgery and document the refusal.
- B. Ask the patient for permission to secure the jewelry safely.
- C. Tape the jewelry to the patient's body during surgery.
- D. Tell the patient they must remove the jewelry for safety reasons.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the patient for permission to secure the jewelry safely. Hospital policy typically requires jewelry to be secured or removed to prevent interference during surgery. Proceeding with the surgery without addressing the issue or taping the jewelry to the patient's body are not safe practices and can lead to complications during the procedure. Directing the patient to remove the jewelry without exploring alternative solutions is not patient-centered care and may create unnecessary tension.
5. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Cough
- B. Tremor
- C. Constipation
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.
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