ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with a provider?
- A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- B. Hyoscyamine
- C. Oxybutynin
- D. Phenazopyridine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin can worsen urinary retention, so the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Choice A) is a common antibiotic used to treat UTIs and does not require verification. Hyoscyamine (Choice B) is an anticholinergic medication used for bladder spasms and does not typically worsen UTI symptoms. Phenazopyridine (Choice D) is a urinary analgesic that helps relieve pain, burning, and discomfort caused by a UTI, which may not necessarily require verification in this scenario.
2. Which intervention is essential when caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube?
- A. Suction the NG tube every 4 hours.
- B. Check the placement of the NG tube before each feeding.
- C. Flush the NG tube with water before and after each medication administration.
- D. Remove the NG tube once the patient feels comfortable.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the placement of the NG tube before each feeding is crucial to ensure it is correctly positioned and safe to use. Option A is incorrect as routine suctioning can lead to complications and should only be done as needed. Option C is not necessary unless there are specific instructions for flushing. Option D is incorrect as the NG tube should only be removed by healthcare professionals based on medical criteria, not solely based on the patient's comfort.
3. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with a chest tube?
- A. Ensuring the chest tube is secured properly and functioning
- B. Checking for air leaks and ensuring drainage is working
- C. Ensuring chest tube drainage is below chest level
- D. Ensuring proper documentation of chest tube output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Proper documentation of chest tube output is crucial in the care of a patient with a chest tube. While ensuring the chest tube is secured and functioning, checking for air leaks, and maintaining drainage below chest level are important aspects of care, documentation of output is essential for monitoring the patient's condition, assessing the effectiveness of treatment, and ensuring appropriate interventions if needed.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has asthma. Which of the following areas should the nurse evaluate as the most reliable indicator of central cyanosis?
- A. Oral mucosa
- B. Conjunctivae
- C. Soles of the feet
- D. Ear lobes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Central cyanosis is best assessed by examining the oral mucosa, as it is a more reliable indicator compared to other areas like the conjunctivae, soles of the feet, and ear lobes. The oral mucosa reflects the oxygen saturation levels of the blood more accurately. Conjunctivae and ear lobes may show cyanosis, but they are not as reliable as the oral mucosa. The soles of the feet are not typically used to assess central cyanosis.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer the initial dose of ceftriaxone to a client who has endometritis. Which of the following statements by the client should cause the healthcare professional to hold the medication and consult the provider?
- A. I have a severe allergy to amoxicillin
- B. I get sick when I take diuretics
- C. I have a history of hearing problems
- D. I take prednisone for my asthma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A severe allergy to amoxicillin could indicate a potential cross-reactivity with ceftriaxone, so the medication should be held. Cross-reactivity between penicillins (like amoxicillin) and cephalosporins (like ceftriaxone) is a known concern due to their similar chemical structures. Choices B, C, and D do not directly contraindicate the administration of ceftriaxone for endometritis.
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