Nursing Elites

1. Health practitioners evaluate disease progression in HIV-infected patients by measuring the concentrations of helper T cells and circulating virus, called _____.

• A. cross resistance
• B. the immune response
• C. acquired resistance
• D. the viral load

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The viral load is the measure of the amount of circulating virus in the blood and is used to evaluate the progression of HIV infection.

2. Which adolescent student lunch, evaluated by the school nurse, is the least nutritious?

• A. Ham sandwich, apple, and milk
• B. Hamburger, fries, and soft drink
• C. Macaroni and cheese, green beans, and peaches
• D. Meatloaf, broccoli, and pear slices

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hamburger, fries, and soft drink. This meal is considered the least nutritious among the options provided due to its high content of unhealthy fats, processed carbohydrates, and added sugars, which lack essential nutrients. On the other hand, choice A: Ham sandwich, apple, and milk, offers a balanced meal with protein, fiber, vitamins, and calcium. Choice C: Macaroni and cheese, green beans, and peaches, provides a mixture of carbohydrates, vegetables, and fruits. Choice D: Meatloaf, broccoli, and pear slices, includes protein, fiber, and vitamins. Thus, all choices except B provide a more balanced and nutritious meal.

3. What type of drug would most likely be given to a patient following a myocardial infarction?

• A. antiemetic
• B. anticoagulant
• C. anticonvulsant
• D. antibiotic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticoagulants are the most suitable choice for a patient following a myocardial infarction. These medications are essential in preventing further blood clots from forming in the arteries, reducing the risk of complications such as strokes or recurrent heart attacks. Antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not directly related to myocardial infarction. Anticonvulsants are used to manage seizures, not typically indicated after a heart attack. Antibiotics are prescribed to treat bacterial infections, not routinely given after a myocardial infarction.

4. What does oliguria lead to in patients with acute kidney injury?

• A. Hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue
• B. An increase in blood potassium levels due to excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone
• C. Sodium retention and elevated levels of potassium
• D. Edema due to increased urine production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In patients with acute kidney injury, oliguria (reduced urine output) often results in sodium retention and hyperkalemia (elevated levels of potassium). This is due to the kidneys' decreased capacity to excrete these substances. Choice A is incorrect because hypophosphatemia and overgrowth of bone tissue are not direct consequences of oliguria in acute kidney injury. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in blood potassium levels is not caused by excessive excretion of parathyroid hormone but rather by decreased excretion of potassium. Choice D is incorrect because edema is not caused by increased urine production but rather by fluid overload due to decreased urine output.

5. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:

• A. Soften and efface the cervix
• B. Numb cervical pain receptors
• C. Prevent cervical lacerations
• D. Stimulate uterine contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, ensuring that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.

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