ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Examples of patients suffering from impaired awareness include all of the following except:
- A. A semiconscious or overfatigued patient
- B. A disoriented or confused patient
- C. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home
- D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with impaired awareness may exhibit symptoms such as being semiconscious, overfatigued, disoriented, confused, or demonstrating symptoms of drug or alcohol withdrawal. A patient who cannot care for themselves at home does not necessarily indicate impaired awareness, as this could be due to physical limitations or lack of support, rather than a cognitive deficit.
2. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:
- A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread
- B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
- C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
- D. Chicken bouillon
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. Both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are typically low in sodium content, making them suitable choices for a 500-mg low sodium diet. The other options, such as a ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, a tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives, and chicken bouillon, may contain higher amounts of sodium and are not typically recommended for a low sodium diet.
3. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
4. What is the appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection?
- A. 20G
- B. 22G
- C. 25G
- D. 26G
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Intradermal injections require a very fine needle to be used to deliver the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. A 26G needle is typically used for intradermal injections as it is thin enough to penetrate the skin's surface and deposit the medication accurately.
5. When reviewing the prescriptions for a client with a pneumothorax, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?
- A. Assess the client's pain.
- B. Obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression.
- C. Administer lorazepam.
- D. Prepare for chest tube insertion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a pneumothorax, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain a large-bore IV needle for decompression. This intervention helps to relieve the pressure in the pleural space, allowing the lung to re-expand. Prompt decompression is crucial in managing a tension pneumothorax, which can be life-threatening. Assessing pain, administering medication, and preparing for chest tube insertion are important, but they should follow the immediate intervention of decompression in a critical situation like a tension pneumothorax.
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